2014年9月2日星期二

P2090-080 P2090-086 C2090-311 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: P2090-080
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM ISW-9.7 & Smart Analytics Technical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 44 Q&As

Code d'Examen: P2090-086
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Master Data Mgmt-PIM Technical Mastery v1 Exam)
Questions et réponses: 55 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2090-311
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM DB2 10.5 DBA for LUW Upgrade from DB2 10.1)
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

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2014年9月1日星期一

Oracle 1z1-574 1Z1-522, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 1z1-574
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle IT Architecture Essentials (Beta Exam))
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z1-522
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne Financial Management 9.0 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following environments are typically clustered?
A. Development Environment
B. User Acceptance Testing (UAT) Environment
C. Staging Environment
D. Nonfunctional Testing Environment
Answer: B

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Explanation: UAT (also known as beta testing) : Formal testing with respect to user needs,
requirements, and business processes conducted to determine whether or not a system satisfies
the acceptance criteria and to enable the user, customers or other authorized entity to determine
whether or not to accept the system.
Incorrect answer:
The staging tier is a environment that is as identical to the production environment as possible.
The purpose of the Staging environment is to simulate as much of the Production environment as
possible. The Staging environment can also double as a Demonstration/Training environment.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,Business Process Engineering, Release 3.0

NO.2 Which statement best describes the relationship between a SOA Service and service
Infrastructure?
A. Service infrastructure is a primary part of an SOA Service.
B. Service Infrastructure exposes the Service Interface and may satisfy some capabilities of the
Service Implementation.
C. Service infrastructure fulfills the Service Contract.
D. A SOA Service depends on the service infrastructure to satisfy some required capabilities.
E. A SOA Service uses the service infrastructure to generate the Service Interface.
Answer: B

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Explanation: The Service Infrastructure side typically provides the Service enablement
capabilities
for the implementation. These capabilities may include, exposing the interface as a
Web Service, handling SLA enforcement, security, data formatting, and others. Service
infrastructure should be utilized when possible, as it reduces the burden on Service
providers, from an implementation standpoint.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture,SOA Foundation, Release 3.1

NO.3 Which product provides the standard communication protocols (for example, HTTPS) between
the
Client Tier and the Service Tier as well as Message Security?
A. Oracle platform Security Services
B. Oracle WebCenter
C. Application Development Framework
D. Oracle HI IP Server
Answer: A

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Explanation: Oracle Platform Security Services comprises Oracle WebLogic Server's internal
security framework and Oracle's security framework (referred to as Oracle Platform Security).
OPSS delivers security as a service within a comprehensive, standards-based security framework.
The Security Services includes SSL:Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a combination
of Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) with SSL/TLS protocol.
Note:Oracle Platform Security Services (OPSS) provides enterprise product development teams,
systems integrators (SIs), and independent software vendors (ISVs) with a standards-based,
portable, integrated, enterprise-grade security framework for Java Standard Edition (Java SE) and
Java Enterprise Edition (Java EE) applications.
OPSS provides an abstraction layer in the form of standards-based application programming
interfaces (APIs) that insulate developers from security and identity management implementation
details. With OPSS, developers don’t need to know the details of cryptographic key management
or interfaces with user repositories and other identity management infrastructures. Thanks to
OPSS, in-house developed applications, third-party applications, and integrated applications
benefit from the same, uniform security, identity management, and audit services across the
enterprise.
OPSS is the underlying security platform that provides security to Oracle Fusion Middleware
including products like WebLogic Server, SOA, WebCenter, ADF, OES to name a few. OPSS is
designed from the ground up to be portable to third-party application servers. As a result,
developers can use OPSS as the single security framework for both Oracle and third-party
environments, thus decreasing application development, administration, and maintenance costs.
Reference: Oracle® Fusion Middleware Security Overview, 11g Release 1, About Oracle Platform
Security Services

NO.4 Which of the following is NOT defined as a primary ORA computing foundation component?
A. Distributed Computing
B. Utility Computing
C. Grid Computing
D. Caching
Answer: D

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Explanation: Primary ORA computing foundation components:
Distributed Computing
On-Demand Computing
Utility Computing
Grid Computing
Cloud Computing
Elastic Computing
Virtualization
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0

NO.5 Which statement best describes the relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage
Agreement as defined by the Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?
A. There is a one-to-one relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage Agreement. For
each Service Contract there is a corresponding Usage Agreement.
B. There may be multiple Usage Agreements associated with a single Service Contract.
C. There may be multiple Service Contracts associated with a single Usage Agreement.
D. There is a many-to-many relationship between Service Contracts and Usage Agreements.
E. There is no defined relationship between a Service Contract and a Usage Agreement.
Answer: B

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Explanation: The Service Contract defines what the SOA Service agrees to provide to the
environment.
The service consumer Usage Agreement defines what a particular service consumer is
entitled to consume.
Each service might have several consumers.
The Service provider must ensure that the Service will satisfy the aggregate
specifications of all related usage agreements.
Note:
The usage agreement is not part of the Service; rather it defines what a particular service
consumer is entitled to consume from the Service.
Having both a usage agreement and a service contract provides a decoupling between
the service provider and service consumer. This not only facilitates reuse but also
provides a separation of concerns. The service contract defines the totality of what the
Service guarantees to provide, and can be written and validated independent of any
knowledge of specific service consumers. The usage agreement is service consumer
specific and defines what capabilities of the Service each consumer is allowed to
consume.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architectureand Service Orientation, Release 3.0

NO.6 Which of the following is NOT a container capability?
A. Scalability
B. High Availability
C. Management and Monitoring
D. Applications
Answer: B

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Explanation:
Reference: Oracle Reference Architecture, Application Infrastructure Foundation, Release 3.0

NO.7 Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Service Contract as defined by
the
Oracle Reference Architecture (ORA)?
A. A Service Contract defines the contract between a service consumer and a service provider.
B. A Service Contract defines the functional and nonfunctional capabilities of the SOA ServiceiIn
human-readable terms.
C. The Web Services Description Language (WSDL) defines the Service Contract for a Web
Service.
D. A Service Contract defines the totality of what the SOA Service provides, independent of
individual service consumers.
E. A Service Contract Is an optional part of an SOA Service, providing human-readable
documentation of the SOA Service.
Answer: B

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Explanation: SOA Services include a contract that specifies the functional and
non-functional capabilities provided.
In order to support business-level composition, the SOA Service
must have a contract that is understandable to a business person.
Reference: Oracle Reference Architectureand Service Orientation, Release 3.0

NO.8 Which statements are true with regard to authorization checks being done in the Mediation
Layer?
A. Performing authorization checksin the Mediation Layer provides a centralized approach to
securing SOA Services.
B. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services
be accessed via the same protocol.
C. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that all secured SOA Services
be accessed only via the Mediation Layer.
D. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer eliminates the need for role-based
authentication.
E. Performing authorization checks in the Mediation Layer requires that user authentication be
based on username and password.
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: 1z0-474
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Taleo Recruiting Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-804
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java SE 7 Programmer II Exam)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Z0-457
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Enterprise Manager 12c Essentials Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 When you create reports using Information Publisher, which three statements are true?
A. You always start from the beginning when you create custom reports.
B. Both default categories and subcategories can be used for out of the-box reports.
C. Time-period and/or target parameters can be used for viewing reports.
D. Using reporting elements, you can add a variety of information to your report.
E. No additional customization is provided after the reporting elements are assembled.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 Identify two true statements about the setup and use of identity management within Oracle
Enterprise manager.
A. Credentials are used to access targets that are monitored and managed by Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
B. Repository-Base Authentication is the default authentication.
C. Single Sign-On Authentication is the default authentication.
D. Credentials are used as the root of the data masking key.
E. Using the SCOTT/TIGER identify, you can demonstrate but not configure Oracle Enterprise
Manager.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Which three configuration management functions are included in the Oracle Enterprise
manager
WebLogic Management Pack Enterprise Edition?
A. Comparing user files that are not associated with the Oracle Middleware home
B. Tracking configuration drift
C. Detecting policy violations
D. Tracking memory drift
E. Generating WebLogic regulatory compliance exceptions
F. Comparing configurations across WebLogic Server domains
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.4 Which three are key elements in the plugin.xml file for Oracle Enterprise Management?
A. CredentialInfo
B. CredentialType
C. CredentialSet
D. CredentialSetRow
E. CredentialMember
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 In Oracle Enterprise Manager, what would you use for a job that you want to save and use
again
later?
A. The job Repository
B. The Job Scheduler
C. The Job Library
D. The Job Activity Service
E. The Job Reuse Template
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which feature provides real-time change detection?
A. Grid Control
B. Configuration Change Console
C. Application Configuration Console
D. Database Control
Answer: B

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NO.7 Oracle Enterprise Manager Groups enable users to _________.
A. Send email notifications based on Repeat Frequency
B. Specify monitoring and policy settings once and apply them as often as needed
C. Group only homogeneous targets
D. View the summary status of the targets within the group
Answer: B

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Nortel meilleur examen 920-316, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 920-316
Nom d'Examen: Nortel (SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the recommended CPU specification for symposium Agent server in stand-alone
versus co-resident mode with TAPI for 100 agents, assuring Windows NT service pak5?
A. SA will only run on a Windows 2000 platform and so cannot be sized in this scenario
B. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand-alone or co-resident mode on a Pentium II
100 Mhz CPU clock speed
C. A Pentium II 400 Mhz CPU clock speed server can only support 100 Active Agents in a
stand-alone mode Symposium Agent server
D. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand alone or co-resident mode but requires a
Pentium III 600 Mhz CPU clock speed
Answer: B

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NO.5 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.6 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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NO.7 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.8 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 070-415
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Implementing a Desktop Infrastructure)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 74-344
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Managing Programs and Projects with Project Server 2013)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 Your organization is a multinational corporation that uses Project Online to plan and control
the projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can
participate in strategic projects.
The Research and Development (R&D) department has been struggling to gather and materialize
the new ideas. The Project Management Office (PMO) has the necessary templates and Enterprise
Project Types (EPTs) to start a formal process for any new product and to adhere to the general
guidelines. However, the R&D group does not want to register all of their ideas since many are
related to improvements and few of them could be materialized into projects.
You need to generate a solution that allows R&D to gather their ideas and facilitate the
materialization into Enterprise Projects.
What should you do?
A. Create a new EPT for the SharePoint Task List and name it R&D New Idea.
B. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a Custom SharePoint Item List
for ideation and requests with custom fields that easily match with Project custom fields when using
the Add SharePoint Sites command in Project Center.
C. Create a new EPT for Enterprise Projects and name it R&D New Idea.
D. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a custom list for ideation and
match list columns with Project custom fields when using the Create Projects command in the
SharePoint Item List.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and
priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier.
The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may
solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management
system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need.
You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and
resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection.
What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
All project managers have permission to edit all projects.
You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your
browser.
A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You
need to resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A company deploys Project Server 2013 to perform a Portfolio Analysis, which they will use to
select the projects they will execute in the next fiscal period.
The company establishes the criteria to evaluate the portfolio components, and all business cases
must be evaluated under these parameters. When configuring Project Server 2013, the Project
Management Office (PMO) finds that the established criteria contain both qualitative and
quantitative elements, such as corporate reputation and internal rate of return (IRR).
You need to provide a system calculated approach to rank your strategic initiatives against each
other. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)
A. Create a Business Driver library that captures the criteria in quantifiable impact statements that
are specific and measurable.
B. Perform a pairwise analysis on the driver set to identify relative priorities.
C. Perform a prioritization by assigning a relative weight to each value criterion and establish the
priorities.
D. Create a custom field for each criterion and ensure each value is captured for each project by
making the project fields as required.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Your organization has implemented Project Server 2013 to plan and control enterprise projects.
Your organization plans to perform a Portfolio Analysis for the first time on the Selection of Projects
to be done the next year. Business drivers, as well as a pair wise comparison of those business
drivers to set the business priorities, is the chosen method.
Your organization has provided you with a total of 35 business drivers, 30 of which are related in
some way.
You need to return with a valid set of drivers and prioritization to perform the analysis.
What should you do?
A. Perform a pairwise analysis on the drivers to identify relative priorities with key stakeholders.
B. Specify a priority value for each driver in order to complete the pairwise analysis.
C. Reduce the number of drivers to fewer than 12 and perform the prioritization with the key
stakeholders.
D. Assign priorities to each driver and normalize to 100 percent.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013.
You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many
business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a
business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level.
You need to maintain ownership and authority of key program dates at the program level.
What should you do?
A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each
sub-project's tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies
within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project,
and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them
into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project
to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013.
You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data,
which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013.
You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and
returning the best prioritization.
This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated
Portfolio Analysis results.
You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection.
Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
Answer: E

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NO.8 You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project
Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse.
You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area.
You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in
the predecessor's/successor's column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013.
Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button
on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save
them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor's/successor's column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project
Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor's/successor's column to the other projects
using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your
dependencies in the predecessor's/ successor's column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: 70-459
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Transition Your MCITP: Database Administrator 2008 or MCITP: Database Developer 2008 to MCSE: Data Platform)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 74-338
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Lync 2013 Depth Support Engineer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 74-353
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Windows UX Design)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 You support a Microsoft Lync Server 2013 Enterprise pool deployed in a high availability
configuration for Back End Servers named Backend 1 and Backend2. You execute the
Get-CSDatabaseMirrorState cmdlet and discover the following errors.
You need to resolve the connectivity issue and bring up the mirror databases to the synchronized
state between the Back End Servers. What should you do?
A. From the mirror Back End Server, create the inbound rule on the firewall.
B. From the Front End Server, create the inbound rule on the firewall.
C. Run the Test-CsDatabase cmdlet.
D. Run the Invoke-CsPoolFailOver cmdlet.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You deploy Microsoft Lync Server 2013 Enterprise Edition and create a pool named
Lync2013pool.Contoso.local. You configure the Lync admin URL to be admin.contoso.local. The
Front End and Back End roles are installed on servers named FE2013 and BE2013.
You attempt to open the Lync Server Control Panel and you receive an error message. You need to
be able to open the Lync Server Control Panel. Which two actions should you perform? (Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create the following DNS A record: lyncdiscoverinternal.contoso.local A 192.168.10.10
B. Create the following DNS A record: admin.contoso.local A 192.163.10.10
C. Create the following DNS A record: Meet.contoso.local A 192.168.10.10
D. Create the following DNS SRV record: _sipinternal._tcp.contoso.local SRV priority 0, weight 0,
port 5061 lync2013pool.contoso.local
E. Create the following DNS A record:lync2013pool.contoso.local A 192.168.10.10
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 You administer a Microsoft Lync Server 2010 Standard Edition server in your network
environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Lync Server 2013 Standard Edition server.
You want to migrate users from Lync Server 2010 to Lync Server 2013. You migrate a test account
from Lync Server 2010 to Lync Server 2013.
You start the Lync 2013 client on one of your test computers and start testing various modalities.
During testing, you decide to test the Meet Now functionality in Lync 2013 client. Meet Now starts a
conference and fails to connect.
You start Clslogging.exe. You generate a log that includes the following information:
You need to identify the cause of the issue. What should you do first?
A. Open another log file from the Lync client in Snooper.
B. Right-click the error message and select Go to nearest entry in trace viewer.
C. Start WireShark and perform the Meet Now test again.
D. Click Show Call Flow Window.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You support a customer whose network environment includes Microsoft Lync Server 2013
Standard Edition and Edge Servers. You create a group named HelpDesk You need to grant the
minimum level of permissions necessary for members of HelpDesk to be able to enable or disable
Lync users. What should you do?
A. Assign the CsServerAdministrator role to HelpDesk members.
B. Assign the CsAdministrator role to HelpDesk members.
C. Add HelpDesk members to the group RTCUniversalServersAdmins.
D. Assign the CsUserAdministrator role to HelpDesk members.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are a member of the CsAdministrator group that supports the Microsoft Lync datacenter
for the Contoso company. The datacenter consists of one pool that is running Lync 2013. Contoso
has a second Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) site with a domain controller. The Lync
server pool fails. You need to recover the Central Management Store (CMS) and users. Which three
actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Run the Invoke-CsPoolFailover cmdlet.
B. Run the New-CsRegistrarConfiguration cmdlet.
C. Run the Install-CsDatabase and Move-CsManagementServer cmdlets.
D. Run the Move-CsDatabase and Set-CsManagementServer cmdlets.
E. Create a Backup pool.
Answer: A,C,E

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Explanation:
A: Invoke-CsPoolFailover
Invokes the failover process for a Lync Server 2013 pool. Failover refers to the process that occurs
when a pool fails and the current users of that pool are then
signed on to a backup pool. The pool failover process provides a way for administrators to quickly
restore service to users if the Registrar pool they have
logged on to should suddenly become unavailable. If a pool fails, users will automatically be signed
off from Lync Server 2013; if they immediately try to log
back on, they will be redirected to their specified backup pool. C:
* The Move-CsManagementServer cmdlet enables administrators to move the Central Management
Server (and the accompanying Central Management store) from one pool to another. Because there
is always the potential for data loss, not to mention service interruption, any time you move the
Central Management Server, it is recommended that you do not make such a transfer unless:
1.You need to decommission the existing management pool, and must transfer the Central
Management Server before doing so.
2.You've encountered a disaster recovery scenario in which the existing Central Management Server
is no longer accessible.
Before you move the Central Management Server, you must do the following:
*1. Verify that you have created the new Central Management store.
This is done by running the Install-CsDatabase cmdlet and using the CentralManagementDatabase
parameter.

NO.6 You support a customer whose network environment includes Microsoft Lync 2013 deployed
in a datacenter that has two pools, named PoolA and PoolB. Both PoolA and PoolB have Microsoft
Lync Server 2013 installed. You use the Lync Management Shell for all administrative actions.
You run the Invoke-CsPoolFailover PowerShell cmdlet and you receive the following message:
Invoke-CsPoolFailOver: This Front-end pool "poolA.contoso.com" is specified in topology as the next
hop for the Edge server. Failing over this pool may cause External access/Federation/Split-
domain/XMPP features to stop working. Please use Topology Builder to change the Edge internal
next hop setting to point to a different Front-end pool, before you proceed. You need to fail over
PoolA only. What should you do?
A. Run the Get-CsDatabaseMirrorState cmdlet, and then run the
Invoke-CSManagementServerFailover PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Set-CsAccessEdgeConfiguration cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-CsEdgeServer PowerShell cmdlet.
D. Run the Set- CsAVEdgeConfiguration cmdlet
Answer: C

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NO.7 You support a Microsoft Lync Server 2013 environment.
The network includes:
-An Enterprise Edition Front End Pool with two Front End Servers,
-A mediation server that is collocated on the Front End Server, and
-A media gateway with 4 Tl trunks for public switched telephone network (PSTN) connectivity.
Users report intermittent outbound PSTN call failures. There are no issues with inbound PSTN calls.
You view the event log information as shown in the exhibit. (Click the
Exhibit button.)
You need to find out why outbound calls are failing.
Which two event IDs should you investigate? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose two.)
A. 44009
B. 46009
C. 46026
D. 46027
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
Investigate the first error related to LS Outbound Routing (Event ID 46009) and the next event
related to LS Outbound Routing (information level event 46027).

NO.8 You support a customer whose network environment includes Microsoft Lync Server 2013
Standard Edition. Your customer plans to enable sharing of Microsoft PowerPoint content in Lync
meetings. You enable the Office Web Apps Server discovery URL in the Lync Topology. You need to
verify that Lync Server 2013 enables PowerPoint content. What should you do?
A. Check the Event Log of the Front End pool server.
B. Check the Lync Server Control Panel.
C. Check the Event Log of the Office Web Apps server.
D. Verify the connection to the Office Web Apps Discovery URL in a web browser.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 070-463
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 70-336
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Core Solutions of Microsoft Lync Server 2013)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 070-404
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (TS: System Center Service Manager 2010, Configuring (available in 2010))
Questions et réponses: 165 Q&As

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