2014年5月29日星期四

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Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part3
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 3 study guide with online review)
Questions et réponses: 1554 Q&As

Code d'Examen: IIA-CIA-Part2
Nom d'Examen: IIA (Certified Internal Auditor - Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement)
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 The use of teams in total quality management (TQM) is important because:
A. Well-managed teams can be highly creative and are able to address complex problems better
than individuals can.
B. Teams are quicker to make decisions, thereby helping to reduce cycle time.
C. Employee motivation is higher for team members than for individual contributors.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to become
leaner and more profitable.
Answer: A

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Teams can use the diverse knowledge and skills of all team members. Employee involvement means
training and empowering employees to harness their creativity for problem solving. Quality control
circles are used to obtain input from employees and to locate the best perspective on problem
solving.

NO.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of total quality management (TQM)?
A. Management by objectives.
B. On-the-job training by other workers.
C. Quality by final inspection.
D. Education and self-improvement.
Answer: D

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the
means of achieving this is through employee training and empowerment.

NO.3 Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Answer: C

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract
penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.

NO.4 In which of the following organizational structures does total quality management (TQM) work
best?
A. Hierarchal.
B. Teams of people from the same specialty.
C. Teams of people from different specialties.
D. Specialists working individually.
Answer: C

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM advocates replacement of the traditional hierarchal structure with teams of people from
different specialties. This change follows from TQM's emphasis on empowering employees and
teamwork. Employees should (1) have proper training, necessary information, and the best tools;
(2) be fully engaged in the decision process; and (3) receive fair compensation. If such empowered
employees are assembled in teams of individuals with the required skills, TQM theorists believe
they will be more effective than people performing their tasks separately in a rigid structure.

NO.5 All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Answer: D

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention,
appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
11. Which of the following is not an appropriate measure of quality?
A. Market share.
B. Delivery performance.
C. Customer satisfaction.
D. Raw materials costs.
Answer: D

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Emphasizing lower input costs may result in more defective output, and higher input costs may or
may not reflect the procurement of better raw materials. Financial measures are thus mostly
unsuitable for measuring quality.
12. One of the main reasons that implementation of a total quality management (TQM) program
works better through the use of teams is:
A. Teams are more efficient and help an organization reduce its staffing.
B. Employee motivation is always higher for team members than for individual contributors.
C. Teams are a natural vehicle for sharing ideas, which leads to process improvement.
D. The use of teams eliminates the need for supervision, thereby allowing a company to reduce
staffing.
Answer: C

certification IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM promotes teamwork by modifying or eliminating traditional (and rigid) vertical hierarchies and
instead forming flexible groups of specialists. Quality circles, cross-functional teams, and
self-managed teams are typical formats. Teams are an excellent means of encouraging the sharing
of ideas and removing process improvement obstacles.
13. If a company is customer-centered, its customers are defined as:
A. Only people external to the company who have purchased something from the company.
B. Only people internal to the company who directly use its product.
C. Anyone external to the company and those internal who rely on its product to get their job done.
D. Everybody external to the company who is currently doing, or may in the future do, business with
the company.
Answer: C

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
One of the principles of total quality management (TQM) is customer orientation, whether the
customer is internal or external. An internal customer is a member of the organization who relies on
another member's work to accomplish his/her task.
14. Management of a company is attempting to build a reputation as a world-class manufacturer
of quality products. Which of the following measures would not be used by the firm to measure
quality?
A. The percentage of shipments returned by customers because of poor quality.
B. The number of parts shipped per day.
C. The number of defective parts per million.
D. The percentage of products passing quality tests the firsttime
Answer: B

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
The number of parts shipped per day would most likely be used as a measure of the effectiveness
and efficiency of shipping procedures, not the quality of the product. This measure does not
consider how many of the parts are defective.
15. Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the
differences
between these organizations have certain implications for quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted
by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Answer: B

certification IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or
services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service
enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes
maybe reworked or replaced to a customer's satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of
customers.
16. A means of limiting production delays caused by equipment breakdown and repair is to:
A. Schedule production based on capacity planning.
B. Plan maintenance activity based on an analysis of equipment repair work orders.
C. Pre-authorize equipment maintenance and overtime pay.
D. Establish a preventive maintenance program for all production equipment.
Answer: D

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
A preventive maintenance program reduces equipment breakdowns and repairs.
17. Under a total quality management (TQM) approach,
A. Measurement occurs throughout the process, and errors are caught and corrected at the source.
B. Quality control is performed by highly trained inspectors at the end of the production process.
C. Upper management assumes the primary responsibility for the quality of the products and
services.
D. A large number of suppliers are used in order to obtain the lowest possible prices.
Answer: A

IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM emphasizes quality as a basic organizational function. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality
in every aspect of organizational activities. One of the basic principles of TQM is doing it right the
first time. Thus, errors should be caught and corrected at the source.
18. Which of the following is a key to successful total quality management (TQM)?
A. Training quality inspectors.
B. Focusing intensely on the customer.
C. Creating appropriate hierarchies to increase efficiency.
D. Establishing a well-defined quality standard, then focusing on meeting it.
Answer: B

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM emphasizes satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM considers the supplier's
relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone in a
process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization. Thus, TQM begins with external customer requirements, identifies internal
customer-supplier relationships and requirements, and establishes requirements for external
suppliers.
19. The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
Answer: B

IIA examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective
output during and after the production process. Internal failure costs are associated with defective
output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output
discovered after it has reached the customer.
20. Statistical quality control often involves the use of control charts whose basic purpose is to:
A. Determine when accounting control procedures are not working.
B. Control labor costs in production operations.
C. Detect performance trends away from normal operations.
D. Monitor internal control applications of information technology.
Answer: C

IIA examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
Statistical control charts are graphic aids for monitoring the status of any process subject to random
variations. The chart consists of three horizontal lines plotted on a horizontal time scale. The vertical
scale represents the appropriate quantitative measure. The center line represents the average range
or overall mean for the process being controlled. The other two lines are the upper control limit and
the lower control limit. The processes are measured periodically, and the values are plotted on the
chart. If the value falls within the control limits, no action is taken. If the value falls outside the limits,
the process is considered "out of control," and an investigation is made for possible corrective
action. Another advantage of the chart is that it makes trends visible.

NO.6 Focusing on customers, promoting innovation, learning new philosophies, driving out fear, and
providing extensive training are all elements of a major change in organizations. These elements are
aimed primarily at:
A. Copying leading organizations to better compete with them.
B. Focusing on the total quality of products and services.
C. Being efficient and effective at the same time, in order to indirectly affect profits.
D. Managing costs of products and services better, in order to become the low-cost provider.
Answer: B

IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
TQM is a comprehensive approach to quality. It treats the pursuit of quality as a basic organizational
function that is as important as production or marketing. TQM is the continuous pursuit of quality in
every aspect of organizational activities through (1) a philosophy of doing it right the first time; (2)
employee training and empowerment; (3) promotion of teamwork; (4) improvement of processes;
and (5) attention to satisfaction of customers, both internal and external. TQM emphasizes the
supplier's relationship with the customer, identifies customer needs, and recognizes that everyone
in a process is at some time a customer or supplier of someone else, either inside or outside of the
organization.

NO.7 Which statement best describes total quality management (TQM)?
A. TQM emphasizes reducing the cost of inspection.
B. TQM emphasizes better statistical quality control techniques.
C. TQM emphasizes doing each job right the first time.
D. TQM emphasizes encouraging cross-functional teamwork.
Answer: C

certification IIA   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen
Explanation:
TQM establishes quality as an organizational objective and views it as a major component of the
organization's service to its customers. It emphasizes employee training and commitment,
productservice design and production, and customer service. Ordinarily, the quality of a product or
service is as important to customers as cost and timeliness. Superior product quality is not merely
the result of more inspection, better statistical quality control, and cross-functional teamwork.
Manufactures must make fundamental changes in the way they produce products and do each job
right the first time.

NO.8 A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a
benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and reliability of branch store
financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Answer: C

certification IIA   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   IIA-CIA-Part3   certification IIA-CIA-Part3   IIA-CIA-Part3 examen   certification IIA-CIA-Part3
Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a
high-performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches). This process requires, among
other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance
measurement is the amount of bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could
indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.

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Code d'Examen: CCD-410
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop (CCDH))
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CCB-400
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Specialist in Apache HBase)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CCD-470
Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Developer for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCDH))
Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify the tool best suited to import a portion of a relational database every day as files into
HDFS, and generate Java classes to interact with that imported data?
A. Oozie
B. Flume
C. Pig
D. Hue
E. Hive
F. Sqoop
G. fuse-dfs
Answer: F

Cloudera examen   certification CCD-470   CCD-470   CCD-470

NO.2 What happens in a MapReduce job when you set the number of reducers to zero?
A. No reducer executes, but the mappers generate no output.
B. No reducer executes, and the output of each mapper is written to a separate file in HDFS.
C. No reducer executes, but the outputs of all the mappers are gathered together and written to a
single file in HDFS.
D. Setting the number of reducers to zero is invalid, and an exception is thrown.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You want to populate an associative array in order to perform a map-side join. You’ve decided
to
put this information in a text file, place that file into the DistributedCache and read it in your
Mapper before any records are processed.
Indentify which method in the Mapper you should use to implement code for reading the file and
populating the associative array?
A. combine
B. map
C. init
D. configure
Answer: D

Cloudera examen   CCD-470 examen   certification CCD-470   certification CCD-470   CCD-470 examen

NO.4 What data does a Reducer reduce method process?
A. All the data in a single input file.
B. All data produced by a single mapper.
C. All data for a given key, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
D. All data for a given value, regardless of which mapper(s) produced it.
Answer: C

Cloudera examen   certification CCD-470   CCD-470

NO.5 You are running a job that will process a single InputSplit on a cluster which has no other jobs
currently running. Each node has an equal number of open Map slots. On which node will Hadoop
first attempt to run the Map task?
A. The node with the most memory
B. The node with the lowest system load
C. The node on which this InputSplit is stored
D. The node with the most free local disk space
Answer: C

Cloudera examen   certification CCD-470   CCD-470   certification CCD-470

NO.6 Which describes how a client reads a file from HDFS?
A. The client queries the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode returns the block
location(s) to the client. The client reads the data directory off the DataNode(s).
B. The client queries all DataNodes in parallel. The DataNode that contains the requested data
responds directly to the client. The client reads the data directly off the DataNode.
C. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode then queries the
DataNodes for block locations. The DataNodes respond to the NameNode, and the NameNode
redirects the client to the DataNode that holds the requested data block(s). The client then reads
the data directly off the DataNode.
D. The client contacts the NameNode for the block location(s). The NameNode contacts the
DataNode that holds the requested data block. Data is transferred from the DataNode to the
NameNode, and then from the NameNode to the client.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Assuming default settings, which best describes the order of data provided to a reducer’s
reduce
method:
A. The keys given to a reducer aren’t in a predictable order, but the values associated with those
keys always are.
B. Both the keys and values passed to a reducer always appear in sorted order.
C. Neither keys nor values are in any predictable order.
D. The keys given to a reducer are in sorted order but the values associated with each key are in
no predictable order
Answer: D

Cloudera   CCD-470 examen   CCD-470

Dernières AFP CTP examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTP
Nom d'Examen: AFP (Certified Treasury Professional )
Questions et réponses: 612 Q&As

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NO.1 A call option for a company has an exercise price of $50. The stock is currently trading at $60. At
maturity, what should an investor who paid $3 for the option do?
A. Exercise the option and gain $7.
B. Exercise the option and gain $10.
C. Not exercise the option and lose $3.
D. Not exercise the option and lose $13.
Answer: A

AFP examen   certification CTP   CTP examen   certification CTP

NO.2 Which of the following instruments simplifies the paperwork connected with loans that have multiple
advance features?
A. Master note
B. Banker's acceptance
C. Indenture agreement
D. Note purchase agreement
Answer: A

certification AFP   CTP examen   CTP examen

NO.3 An optimal concentration system minimizes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. administrative costs.
B. disbursement float.
C. excess balances.
D. transfer costs.
Answer: B

AFP examen   CTP examen   certification CTP

NO.4 On the basis of the following exchange rates,
which of the following currency amounts has the greatest value in U.S. dollars?
A. C$750,000
B. ¡ê850,00
C. 900,000
D. £¤5,000,000
Answer: B

AFP   CTP examen   CTP examen   CTP examen   CTP examen   CTP examen

NO.5 Which of the following is a characteristic of giro systems used in countries in Europe?
A. They operate through their postal systems.
B. They are primarily used for company-to-company payments.
C. They do not replace checks for the payment of bills.
D. They do not allow the use of direct debits and credits.
Answer: A

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NO.6 A put option on a company's stock has an exercise price of $20. On the delivery date, the stock is
trading at $24 per share. What should the investor who has paid $2 for the option do?
A. Not exercise the option and lose $2.
B. Not exercise the option and lose $6.
C. Exercise the option and gain $2.
D. Exercise the option and gain $4.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A bank issues a letter of credit (L/C) and receives a request for payment under the L/C. The buyer
notifies the issuing bank not to make payment because there is a dispute over the quality of the
merchandise. However, the documents received fully comply with the terms of the L/C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The buyer may immediately return the merchandise and cancel the L/C.
B. The bank may delay payment until reimbursed by the buyer.
C. The bank may delay payment, provided the seller is notified of the dispute within three business days.
D. The bank must make payment and is entitled to immediate reimbursement from the buyer.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following are important uses of variance analysis in comparing actual cash flows with
projected cash flows?
I. Identifying unanticipated changes in inventory
II. Enhancing short-term investment income
III. Validating a capital budget
IV. Identifying delays in accounts receivable collections
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: B

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Dernières Magento M70-101 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: M70-101
Nom d'Examen: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Exam)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 Which one of the following classes must you extend in order to implement a custom indexer?
A. Mage_Eav_Model_Indexer_Abstract
B. Mage_Core_Model_lndexer_Abstract
C. Mage_Index_Model_Entity_Indexer_Abstract
D. Mage_Index_Model_Indexer_Abstract
Answer: D

Magento   certification M70-101   certification M70-101

NO.2 Which two EAV attribute frontend_input types make use of source models? (Choose two)
A. text
B. textarea
C. select
D. multiselect
E. date
F. gallery
Answer: C,D

certification Magento   certification M70-101   certification M70-101   M70-101 examen

NO.3 For an attribute to be loaded on a catalog/product object, which two of the following conditions must be
satisfied? (Choose two)
A. The eav_attribute table must contain a row defining the attribute's properties and its entity type.
B. The attribute must have a backend model configured in the XML config.
C. The attribute must be part of the attribute set pertaining to the object being loaded.
D. There must be a record of the attribute on the catalog_product_super_atti:ibute table.
E. There must be a column added to the catalog_product_entity table.
Answer: A,C

Magento examen   certification M70-101   certification M70-101

NO.4 Which of the following options would cause a poll/poll collection to load all entities that have been
posted during April, 2011?
A. $collection->addAttributeToFilter(*date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => 2011-04-30') );
B. $collection->addFieldToFilter('date_posted', array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
C. $collection->addPostDateFilter('2011-04-01', '2011-04-30');
D. $collection->addFieldToSelect(('date_posted', Array('from' => '2011-04-01', 'to' => '2011-04-30') );
Answer: B

Magento   certification M70-101   certification M70-101   M70-101 examen

NO.5 You are creating a custom CMS module named Achme_Cms. Which one of the following is the correct
XML required to override a controller from the Mage_Cms module in your Achme_Cms module?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have a product collection and want to add a filter to get all products whose name starts with Test or
whose price is 0.00.
Which of the following statements would add that OR condition?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: A

Magento   M70-101   M70-101 examen   certification M70-101

NO.7 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _isAllowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 What class does an adminhtml grid directly extend.?
A. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget
B. Varien_Data_Grid
C. Varien_Data_Widget
D. Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Template
Answer: A

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Guide de formation plus récente de ISQI CTAL-TM_UK CTFL-UK CTAL-TA

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM_UK
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager (CTAL-TM_UK))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTFL-UK
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTAL-TA
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

certification ISQI   certification CTAL-TM_UK   CTAL-TM_UK examen

NO.3 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.4 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

certification ISQI   certification CTAL-TM_UK   certification CTAL-TM_UK

NO.5 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM_UK   certification CTAL-TM_UK   CTAL-TM_UK examen   certification CTAL-TM_UK

NO.6 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TM_UK   certification CTAL-TM_UK   certification CTAL-TM_UK

NO.8 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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Le plus récent matériel de formation Motorola Solutions MSC-241 MSC-121

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Code d'Examen: MSC-241
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Solutions EMEA)
Questions et réponses: 108 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-121
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. The dealer needs to make a simple change in repeater
two (2) and utilize IP repeater programming (IRP) to access the repeater remotely. A couple of
days later the customer calls and complains about users getting system busy tones (engaged
tones).
The dealer attempts to connect an RDAC remotely to the system with no success. He has verified
he can communicate to the router at the site.
Which of the following statements BEST describes the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The master has gone down and the system is operating on just two (2) repeaters.
C. There is RF interference on the channel and the master repeater is unable to communicate to
the peers.
D. The peers are using DHCP and are not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The system is operating on just the master.
Answer: B

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-241   certification MSC-241   MSC-241

NO.2 On which type of channel in an IP Site Connect system are Transmit Interrupt features
supported
in repeater firmware releases R01.08.00 and higher?
A. Wide Area Slots only
B. Local Area Slots only
C. Both Wide and Local Area slots
D. Noneoftheabove
Answer: D

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NO.3 What will Enhanced Channel Access improve?
A. The amount of GPS updates that can be sent on a data revert channel
B. The amount of time from when PTT is pressed until voice is sent
C. Call success rate
D. Call setup time
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-241 examen   MSC-241 examen

NO.4 A Capacity Plus system consists of three (3) repeaters with repeater one (1) the master and
repeaters two (2) and three (3) as peers. On the 24th of May, there is a lighting strike at the site
and the building lost power, causing the three repeaters to revert to DC power. The design of the
site called for just the repeaters to be battery backed. However the next morning the customer
calls and reports that a number of talkgroups are getting busy tones (engaged), yet other groups
are seeing no busy tones (engaged) on the system. Which of the following statements BEST
describe the issue?
A. The master has gone down and taken the rest of the Capacity Plus network with it.
B. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list and
went off the Capacity Plus network as their leases expired.
C. The switch was not on battery backup and there are no LAN connections on the Capacity Plus
system, each of the repeaters are now operating as three (3) independent Capacity Plus systems.
D. The peers use DHCP and were not able to connect to the master and refresh their peer list.
The dealer should have used static IP addresses throughout.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-241   MSC-241   certification MSC-241

NO.5 Which of the following are TRUE statements about operating a MOTOTRBO repeater in an IP
Site
Connect configuration?
A. One of its logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area) and the other
logical channel can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
B. Both logical channels can work in digital repeater mode (single site over local area).
C. Both logical channels can work in IP Site Connect mode (over wide area).
D. Only A and B are true (C is false).
E. Only A and C are true (B is false).
F. A, B, and C are true.
Answer: F

certification Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-241   certification MSC-241   MSC-241 examen   MSC-241 examen

NO.6 What changes are required to the Master Repeater in an IP Site Connect system when a new
peer
is added to the system?
A. Both the IP address and port number of the new repeater must be configured into the Master
Repeater.
B. The address of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
C. The port of the new peer must be configured into the Master Repeater.
D. No changes are required to the Master Repeater.
Answer: D

certification Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-241   certification MSC-241   MSC-241   MSC-241 examen

NO.7 A MOTOTRBO repeater is connected to a Zetron Model 35 Telephone Interconnect. If a
telephone
user dials the Telephone Interconnect number, they get a busy signal (engaged tone). If a radio
user dials any telephone number, they don’t hear the ringing tone, only silence. Upon visiting the
site, you find that when a radio user dials, the relay click can be heard from the Zetron Model 35.
Unplugging the RJ11 and dialing the Telephone Interconnect, still results in a busy signal
(engaged tone). With this information, what do you think could be wrong?
A. The Zetron Model 35 may be faulty.
B. The Zetron Model 35 has probably not been configured for the phone line Ringer Equivalence
Number (REN).
C. The RJ11 cable may have a short circuit or there is a short circuit somewhere between the site
and the exchange.
D. The repeater interface cable to the Zetron Model 35 is faulty.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are looking to optimize battery life of radios that are close to the base station. Which is
the
most likely parameter for optimizing the battery life of a radio for a Capacity Plus system?
A. Beacon interval
B. Beacon duration
C. High power mode in Radio
D. Low power mode in Radio
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-241 examen   MSC-241 examen   MSC-241 examen

2014年5月28日星期三

LOT-836 A2010-501 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: LOT-836
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Developing Web Applications)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2010-501
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.5 Infrastructure Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 .Marc is creating a Web application. He wants to let Web users with "No Access" view
specificpages created with forms. How can he accomplish this?
A. Create a form with a Readers field, and give the field a computed value of
"$PublicAccess". Create a view with "$PublicAccess" in the access list.
B. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set the "Available to public access users" form
property. Create a view with "$PublicAccess" in the access list.
C. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set the "Available to public access users" form
property. Create a view with the "Available to public access users" property set.
D. Create a form with a $PublicAccess field. Set a Readers field to "Available to public
accessusers". Create a view with the "Available to public access users" property set.
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Jane created a cascading style sheet that she is trying to add to her Domino database. When
sheclicks the "New Style Sheet Resource" button and navigates to the proper directory, she
does not see the style sheet file. What can she do to correct this?
A. Cut and paste the style-sheet file into the database.
B. Make sure that the style-sheetfile extension is .css.
C. Add the cascading style-sheet as a File Resource first,then import it from there.
D. Put the style code into a Page element, then save the element to include it as part of the
application.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Chris is creating a Web service consumer in Domino. He has a URL that he has used from a
Web browser to browse the WSDL for the web service he will consume. He does not have a
copy of the WSDL file on his computer. When he selected the option to import the WSDL,
he was presented with a window prompting him to enter a file name. How can Chris get the
WSDL imported into his Web service consumer?
A. Chris cannot enter a WSDL URL here. He must save the WSDL file to his local machine
first.
B. Enter the URL of the WSDL as the file name, and click the Open button. Domino will
thenimport the WSDL.
C. Change the http:// part of the WSDL URL to file://, and enter that as the file name. After
youclick the Open button, Domino will import the WSDL.
D. Select the "Retrieve WSDL from Web" option. A window displays prompting for the
"WSDL Web address". Enter the URL of the WSDL as the Web address, and click the Open
button. Domino will then import the WSDL.
Answer: B

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NO.4 .Gary would like to modify a view so that links on his Web site are displayed in the second
column rather than the first column. How can he accomplish this?
A. Add another "Web" column to the view.
B. Modify the view property "Column number for Web links".
C. Select the column property "Show values in the column as links" in the second column,
anddeselect the same property for the first column.
D. Use pass-thru HTML to achieve this effect, as there is no column or view property
available.
Answer: C

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NO.5 .Maggie wants to display the authenticated user's name on her Web site's welcome page.
How can she do this?
A. Use the JavaScriptdocument.userName property.
B. Display the name using the USER_NAME CGI field.
C. Write a JavaScript function that gets the name from the session cookie.
D. Create computed text on the page that computes to the current user's name.
Answer: D

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NO.6 .Sara's application needs to use the same graphic in several forms. When she designed the
application, she pasted the graphic into each form. However, when she views documents
thatwere created with these forms, the browser reacts very slowly. What should Sara do to
correctthis problem?
A. Remove the graphics from the forms.
B. Convert the graphic format to a TIFF and paste it back into the forms.
C. Place the graphic in the database as an image resource and reference the image resource
in all related forms.
D. Compress the graphics into a single ZIP file and place the file in the database as an image
resource.
Answer: C

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NO.7 .Which one of the following programming languages or language combinations can be used
tobuild an agent that retrieves data from non-Domino servers over the Internet?
A. Java
B. XML, WSDL
C. LotusScript in combination with C
D. This is not possible in a Web agent.
Answer: A

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NO.8 .Which of the following server tasks must be enabled in order for a Domino application to
beaccessed from a Web browser?
A. WEB
B. HTTP
C. HTML
D. DOMINO
Answer: B

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