Dernières Oracle 1Z1-522 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-522
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (JD Edwards EnterpriseOne Financial Management 9.0 Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 Your financial implementation client lead needs assistance on understanding the Detail
Method of Intercompany settlements. You explain that the Detail Method uses to
track Intercompany settlements and the company associated with the first journal entry
line acts as the for the transaction.
A. Subsidiaries, detail company
B. Subledger, hub company
C. Subledgers, consolidation company
D. Subledgers, detail company
E. Subsidiaries, hub company
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z1-522   certification 1Z1-522   certification 1Z1-522

NO.2 You are going through the month end dose process. If you run the Account Balance
without Account Master Integrity report and have the processing option set to update
mode/ what do you update?
A. the business unit of all account ledger records that have an invalid business unit
number
B. the account description of ail account ledger records that have an invalid company
number
C. the company number of all account ledger records that have an invalid company
number
D. the company number of the account master records with the correct business unit
E. the company number of all account balance records that have an invalid company
number
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522

NO.3 What two ways can a user access the submitted jobs?
A. by entering 'BV' in the fastpath of a Web Client and selecting a form exit
B. by typing 'Jobs' in the fastpath of a Web Client D C) by selecting Submitted Jobs from
the menu
C. by taking a form exit from the Address Book
D. by selecting 'My System Profile' from the menu
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-522   1Z1-522 examen

NO.4 Your client would like to know if they should set up additional customer records or use
Line of Business processing. Why would you want to activate Line of Business processing?
A. To set up multiple sets SIC values for the customer.
B. To use a different default business unit for invoice entry.
C. To establish multiple Address Book records.
D. To establish a credit limit hierarchy by company.
E. To set up multiple sets of default information for the customer by company.
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z1-522 examen   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522

NO.5 You were asked to create an allocation of all advertising expenses to all marketing
departments based on each individual marketing department's sales revenue. Assuming
that the advertising expense object accounts and sales revenue object accounts are within
one specified range, how will you most efficiently accomplish this allocation?
A. Use a Model Journal Entry
B. Use the Variable Numerator Allocation
C. Use the Recurring Journal Entry
D. Use the Indexed Allocation
E. Use a Variable Model
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z1-522   1Z1-522   certification 1Z1-522   1Z1-522 examen

NO.6 The Supplier Analysis report shows Year to Date information that is inaccurate. Why is
this so?
A. The AP Annual Close has not been processed.
B. Your Data Selection in the Supplier Master report is incorrect.
C. The aging accounts are not set up in the A/P Constants.
D. The Beginning Year A/P and A/P period fields have not been updated In the Company
Numbers and Names.
E. The Supplier/Customer Totals by G/L Accounts report has not been run.
Answer: B

certification Oracle   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522

NO.7 Your client wants to use the fastest method to enter high-volume, simple voucher entries.
What Voucher Entry would you recommend to your client to use?
A. Standard Voucher Entry
B. Voucher Logging Entry
C. Speed Voucher Entry
D. Multi-Voucher, Multi-Supplier
E. Multi-Company, Single-Supplier
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522   1Z1-522

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-466
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466 examen
Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.3 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466 examen

NO.4 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466

NO.5 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   certification 1Z1-466   certification 1Z1-466
Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.6 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466 examen

NO.7 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1Z1-466   1Z1-466   certification 1Z1-466   1Z1-466

NO.8 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle   1Z1-466 examen   1Z1-466
Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.9 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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E22-275 dernières questions d'examen certification EMC et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: E22-275
Nom d'Examen: EMC (recoverpoint backup and recovery specialist exam )
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a customer with an EMC VNX array at each site that uses both block and file storage. They
would like to use the VNX splitter to replicate all their iSCSI data LUNs.
How would you configure RecoverPoint?
A. Use the Consistency Group Wizard to create a CG
B. Use Installation Manager and "Expose" all iSCSI LUNs
C. Check the "Enable iSCSI Replication" option in the CG profile
D. Replication of iSCSI LUNs are not supported at this time
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275 examen

NO.2 You have finished deploying SANTap in a RecoverPoint CRR environment. At Site 2 everything looks
fine. However, at Site 1 you see the following message on the RecoverPoint Management Application:
WARNING: RPA cannot access discovery AVT: 7001248288220000 ; Site1 ; RPA1 in Site1 ; Cisco -
CVT22-2109000dec3c3182
You have checked that back-end and front-end VSANs are properly configured with the correct members
in each. Which action can you take to perform a full discovery of ITLs and recreation of AVTs to fix this
issue?
A. SSH as 'admin' and run the refresh_santap_view command
B. Refresh the splitters on the RecoverPoint Management Application
C. Rescan the SAN on the RecoverPoint Management Application
D. SSH as 'admin' and run the get_santap_view command
Answer: A

EMC examen   E22-275   E22-275 examen

NO.3 In a cascaded RecoverPoint configuration, a customer experiences a site failure at the secondary site.
What impact does this have on replication?
A.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails
B.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 2 to Site 3 replication continues
C.Site 1 to Site 2 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
D.Site 2 to Site 3 replication fails Site 1 to Site 3 replication continues
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275   certification E22-275

NO.4 You are installing the RecoverPoint splitter agent on a B-Series switch. After downloading the agent
binary file to the blade processor, which step must be completed prior to successfully running the
command?
A. chmod +x agent_binary_file
B. chmod +rw agent_binary_file
C. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/zoning_script.sh
D. /thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv start
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.5 You have just enabled the zones and re-enabled the configuration on a AP-7600B switch. Where would
you run the thirdparty/recoverpoint/install/kdrv status command to verify the status of the kdriver on the
switch?
A. As root in the blade processor
B. As admin in the blade processor
C. As root in the control processor
D. As admin in the control processor
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275 examen

NO.6 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting a RecoverPoint issue where consistency groups, using a kdriver splitter, have
stopped working. While analyzing the problem, you ran detect Fibre Channel targets from the SAN
Diagnostics menu. What does this output tell you that relates to the problem in the environment?
A. RPA is not zoned to any hosts
B. All RPA HBA ports are being used as targets
C. Even and odd ports should not see the same targets
D. Ports 0 and 3 should not be connected to the same fabric
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to upgrade a RecoverPoint environment using Deployment Manager (DM). As a prerequisite
to continuing with the upgrade, which TCP port needs to be open between the management station where
the DM is installed and the RPA management IP addresses?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 80
D. 161
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275 examen   E22-275

NO.8 A customer wants to add a new RecoverPoint UserID. Which role must their UserID belong to in order to
manage user settings?
A. Security
B. Admin
C. Boxmgmt
D. Monitor
Answer: A

EMC examen   E22-275 examen   certification E22-275   E22-275 examen

NO.9 Refer to the Exhibit.
You are troubleshooting High Load activities on two consistency groups (CGs). As part of your tasks, you
have run the data collect and are reviewing the system log files for the CGs.
What is a possible root cause for this High Load period?
A. The preferred RPA has lost communications with the remote RPA and caused a failover of the CG
within the cluster.
B. The local site has lost connectivity to the remote site and caused the CG to go into Marking mode.
C. There is no journal assigned to the CG in the local site, causing latency build up during data transfer.
D. The copies are cross-connected between the sites causing additional I/O to flood the connectivity
between the sites.
Answer: A

certification EMC   E22-275 examen   certification E22-275

NO.10 You are selecting the RecoverPoint repository volume using Deployment Manager at a customer's site.
If the customer's environment makes use of an EMC VNX array, what needs to be considered?
A. Selected LUN will be formatted
B. Use of a thin provisioned LUN is supported
C. LUN is accessible by only one RPA
D. Thin LUNs have to be pre-allocated
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.11 You have installed the Solaris kdriver on a host. When validating the installation, you find that the
splitter is not seen by the RecoverPoint Management Application. Other splitters appear correctly in the
GUI.
Which step should you take on the host to discover the splitter by the GUI?
A. Run the /etc/init.d/kdrv start command
B. Run the rc.kdrv configure command and restart the kdriver
C. Run the rc.kdrv start command and reboot the host
D. Run the devfsadm command
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275 examen   certification E22-275

NO.12 A customer is planning to deploy a 2-node RecoverPoint cluster at each data center. They will make use
of dual stack for its LAN network connection.
How many IP addresses should the customer plan for per site, including management IP addresses.?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: D

EMC examen   E22-275 examen   E22-275   certification E22-275

NO.13 In a Brocade splitter implementation using frame redirect mode, how many DPCs are available?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

EMC   E22-275 examen   E22-275   certification E22-275

NO.14 What is the blade processor in a Brocade splitter?
A. A separate command shell which loads and operates the splitter
B. A special slot in a Brocade director with intelligent switch capabilities
C. A daughterboard in the switch to allow RecoverPoint integration
D. A dedicated memory space in the RPA to integrate with a Brocade switch
Answer: A

EMC examen   E22-275 examen   E22-275   E22-275 examen

NO.15 Which device allows the installation of a Brocade splitter into a DCX director?
A. PB-48k-18i
B. PB-48k-AP
C. PB-DCX-32P-E
D. PB-DCX-48P-8G
Answer: B

EMC   certification E22-275   E22-275   E22-275 examen   E22-275 examen

NO.16 You are finalizing a RecoverPoint setup that makes use of the Symmetrix VMAXe splitter. You are about
to create the masking view for the RecoverPoint cluster initiator group.
Which setting must be enabled to allow the RPAs to write to the replica volumes when image access is
disabled?
A. Write Protect Bypass
B. Always Push Old
C. Backlog Mirroring
D. Device Tagging
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275   E22-275 examen   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.17 Which generation of RecoverPoint Appliance hardware must be used to ensure you can use a CRR
over FC configuration?
A. Gen2 and 3 only
B. Gen2 and 4 only
C. Gen2, 3, and 4
D. Gen3 and 4 only
Answer: D

EMC   certification E22-275   E22-275 examen   E22-275

NO.18 You are implementing a RecoverPoint CRR solution. The RPAs that were delivered do not have the
correct version of RecoverPoint.
What is the EMC-preferred way to load the correct software version to the RPAs?
A. Before launching Deployment Manager
B. During the Deployment Manager installation process
C. After completing the installation but before the license is installed
D. After the installation is complete
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

NO.19 When installing a Microsoft Windows kdriver splitter, you receive the dialog box shown in the exhibit
and the installation stops.
What must you do to recover the installation?
A. Click Next, correct the SAN issue, and run SAN Diagnostics again
B. Click Next and Accept the SAN issue warning to continue the installation
C. Click Next to resume the installation with flags
D. Click Back to reconfigure the kdriver parameters
Answer: A

EMC   certification E22-275   E22-275 examen   certification E22-275   E22-275

NO.20 A customer has a RecoverPoint environment defined with two RPAs at each site. They created two
consistency groups (CGs), each one in a different RPA. Their business requires that both consistency
groups act as a single unit as they are dependent on one another.
How can they achieve this requirement?
A. Create one Group Set for both CGs
B. Enable the RecoverPoint Snapshot Consolidation feature
C. Select the same primary RPA for both CGs
D. Configure distributed consistency groups
Answer: A

EMC   E22-275 examen   E22-275   E22-275   E22-275

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Code d'Examen: E20-816
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

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NO.4 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.6 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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NO.11 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.13 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-390
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Questions et réponses: 333 Q&As

E20-390 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-390.html

NO.1 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.4 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.8 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.13 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.14 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.17 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.19 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-326
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Design Exam)
Questions et réponses: 132 Q&As

E20-326 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/E20-326.html

NO.1 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the AIX Servers, to
list the software modules installed?
A. pkginfo
B. lslpp
C. swlist
D. cfgmgr
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is interested in utilizing TimeFinder/Snap to generate a backup copy of an application
every six hours. In order for you to calculate the SAVE Pool requirements you will need to run Change
Tracker. To which value should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 10800
C. 86400
D. 32400
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is a best practice when configuring a Symmetrix VMAX for optimal performance and cost?
A. Different drive types are mixed and spread throughout the array.
B. Dedicated engines have appropriate drive types to meet application needs.
C. A dedicated array with Enterprise Flash Drives (EFD).
D. A dedicated array based upon application requirement.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and IBM iSeries hosts to a new VMAX array.
Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout.
What host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. IOSTAT, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. STP, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
C. IOSTAT, STP, WRKDSKSTS
D. Perfmon, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer requires high performance for their random
write-intensive application. Which RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-6
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-S
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports the maximum allowable downtime for their applications is ninety minutes,
but they have not yet determined how much data recovery following a disaster their environment can
tolerate.
The customer asks which remote replication method you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend.?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-326   E20-326   E20-326

NO.7 A Symmetrix VMAX has been configured with Dynamic Cache Partitions.
What is a criterion that must be met for a cache slot to be eligible for donation?
A. The fall through time must be greater than the donation age
B. The fall through time must be less than the donation age
C. The cache slot must belong to a static partition
D. There must be available cache slots in the default partition
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are proposing a new VMAX array with FAST VP. The customer reports their application needs a
small amount of EFD capacity and asks whether 200 GB EFDs or 400 GB EFDs would provide better
overall performance. Which drive size do you recommend and why?
A. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 200 GB EFDs.
B. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 400 GB EFDs.
C. 400 GB EFDs. They support higher I/O density than 200 GB EFDs.
D. 200 GB EFDs. They support higher IOPS than 400 GB EFDs.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a four hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every four hours
B. SUM report over four hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a flexible partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
B. Cache will be borrowed from the other flexible partition
C. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: A

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NO.11 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a
Windows host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: B

EMC   E20-326   E20-326   E20-326

NO.12 You are designing a new VMAX array. The customer's primary concern is maximizing capacity
available to the host. What RAID protection should you recommend?
A. RAID-5 (7+1)
B. RAID-6 (6+2)
C. RAID-1/0
D. RAID-5 (3+1)
Answer: A

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NO.13 A major telecommunications operator is planning to consolidate multiple mid-tier storage arrays to a
single Symmetrix VMAX solution. Their existing environment includes IBM AIX servers, HP-UX Servers
and Windows 2003 Servers.
When documenting the existing Server environment, which command can be used on the HP-UX Servers,
to list the software modules installed?
A. swlist
B. lslpp
C. pkginfo
D. pkgchk
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer will migrate existing AIX, HP-UX and Windows hosts from a DMX-3 to a new VMAX array.
You need performance data from the existing array to design to the new VMAX volumes configuration
layout. Which tools can be used to collect Symmetrix array performance data?
A. ControlCenter Performance Manager and STP Collector
B. EMC Workload Generator and STP Navigator
C. Storage Configuration Advisor and STP Collector
D. ControlCenter Performance Manager and SymmMerge
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is interested in utilizing SRDF/AR to generate a remote copy of an application with an RPO
of six hours. In order for you to calculate the bandwidth requirements you will need to run Change Tracker.
To which should you set the reset interval length for DeltaMark?
A. 21600
B. 86400
C. 32400
D. 10800
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-326   E20-326   E20-326 examen   E20-326   certification E20-326

NO.16 You are designing a new disaster recovery solution with VMAX arrays. During the initial project kick-off
meeting, the customer reports their environment can tolerate five minutes or less of data recovery
following a disaster but have not yet determined the maximum allowable downtime for their applications.
The customer asks which remote replication methods you recommend for their environment.
What do you recommend?
A. Defer making a recommendation until the application RTO is known.
B. Recommend the disaster recovery solution as described in the Sales Order.
C. Defer making a recommendation until the application RPO in known.
D. Recommend the disaster recovery solution described in the Statement of Work.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A customer plans to migrate existing AIX and Windows hosts as well as Mainframe z/OS LPARs to a
new VMAX array. Performance data is needed to design the VMAX volumes configuration layout. Which
host performance data do you request from the customer?
A. STP, SAR, WRKDSKSTS
B. SAR, Perfmon, WRKDSKSTS
C. IOSTAT, Perfmon, SMF/CMF
D. IOSTAT, SAR, SMF/CMF
Answer: C

EMC   E20-326   E20-326   E20-326 examen   E20-326

NO.18 A Symmetrix VMAX hosts four applications. Each application is assigned a named dynamic cache
partition. Two of the partitions are static and two are flexible. The write pending limit for each partition is
set to 60%.
What will happen if an application running in a static partition reaches the write pending limit set for that
partition?
A. Cache will be borrowed from a flexible partition
B. Cache will be borrowed from the default partition
C. Host write activity to that partition will be throttled
D. The write pending limit of the partition will be raised until it reaches 80%
Answer: C

certification EMC   certification E20-326   E20-326

NO.19 A TimeFinder/Snap of production data must be recreated in a two hour cycle throughout the day.
Which change tracker report will provide the best data for modeling a solution for the twenty-four hour
period?
A. Delta report reset every two hours
B. SUM report over two hours
C. Delta report reset every twenty four hours
D. SUM report over twenty four hours
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-326   certification E20-326   E20-326 examen

NO.20 Prior to starting an implementation, which tool should be used to automate the data collection on a UNIX
host?
A. EMCGrab
B. EMCReports
C. E-Lab Advisor
D. Change Tracker
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-326   E20-326

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-814   E20-814   certification E20-814   E20-814

NO.4 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814   E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.5 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-814   E20-814   E20-814

NO.6 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E20-814   E20-814 examen   E20-814   certification E20-814

NO.7 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

EMC   E20-814 examen   E20-814   certification E20-814   E20-814   E20-814

NO.8 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

EMC examen   certification E20-814   E20-814

NO.9 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-814   certification E20-814   certification E20-814   E20-814

NO.10 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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