EMC meilleur examen E20-814, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-814
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has a vSphere environment consisting of eight ESXi hosts. Each host is running
EMC
PowerPath/VE and is connected to multiple FA ports on their Symmetrix. PowerPath/VE will not
claim the disk devices presented by their storage array even though the devices are seen by the
hosts.
What is the most likely solution?
A. Configure and register the PowerPath/VE license file
B. Check LUN masking on the array
C. Change the PowerPath/VE failover policy to Symopt
D. Uninstall and reinstall PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company has activated a consistent clone replica of an Oracle database using hot backup
mode
on February 26th. The Oracle instance continues to run until March 6th. On March 7th, the
company realizes that an application problem occurred on February 28th.
What is the most recent point to which the database can be recovered?
A. February 26th
B. February 28th
C. March 6th
D. March 7th
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company uses VMware ESXi servers and EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage arrays. The storage
administrators use the VMware vSphere client on their Microsoft Windows desktops to manage
the environment. They would like to use the EMC Virtual Storage Integrator Path Management
plug-in.
Which path management activities will this plug-in allow?
A. Set multi-pathing policy for all Symmetrix devices
B. Set multi-pathing policy for individual Symmetrix devices
C. Change the multi-pathing ownership of all Symmetrix devices from NMP to PowerPath/VE
D. Change the multi-pathing ownership of individual Symmetrix devices from NMP to
PowerPath/VE
Answer: A

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NO.4 An Oracle ASM disk group consists of two 50 GB LUNs and is currently in use. The Oracle
database requires more storage space and has two 100 GB LUNs available.
What is the recommended way to organize ASM disk groups to make use of additional space?
A. Create a new disk group containing two 100 GB LUNs
B. Extend the current disk group to include the two 100 GB LUNs
C. Create two new disk groups containing one 100 GB LUN each
D. Double the disk group size by extending with one 100 GB LUN
Answer: A

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NO.5 A company uses EMC Symmetrix VMAX storage for their VMware vSphere environment. They
intend to use SRDF/S for disaster recovery.
What is a consideration when mounting datastores on the remote site after a failover?
A. Keep the existing signature on the replica datastore
B. Assign a new signature to the replica datastore
C. Replica datastore must be mounted as read only
D. Original datastore must be unmounted before the replica datastore can be mounted
Answer: A

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NO.6 A company is planning to migrate their Oracle database to EMC Symmetrix VMAX to support
decision support system applications. They would like design guidelines to overcome the existing
performance bottlenecks.
What is the key design guideline?
A. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 5 protection
B. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles RAID 5 protection
C. Redo logs and archive logs on the same spindles with RAID 1 protection
D. Redo logs and archive logs on separate spindles with RAID 1 protection
Answer: D

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NO.7 A company's administrator has implemented Symmetrix Access Control. The motherboard in
the
UNIX host with ADMIN privileges was replaced. After this change, the administrator was unable to
issue any Symmetrix Management commands.
What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. Regenerate the Unique ID
B. Reboot the UNIX host
C. Reset the Access Control database
D. Reinstall Solutions Enabler
Answer: A

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NO.8 SRDF/EDP is running in Adaptive Copy Disk mode from the source (R1) site to the secondary
(R21) site. Which SRDF mode is permitted between the R21 and the R2 sites?
A. Adaptive Copy Write Pending
B. Adaptive Copy Disk
C. Synchronous
D. Semi-synchronous
Answer: A

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NO.9 Storage administrators for an EMC Symmetrix VMAX need to increase allocated storage for
Microsoft Exchange LUNs without interrupting its operation. Performing a virtual LUN migration
causes a critical nightly clone operation to run for hours instead of minutes. This impacts later
dependent jobs, preventing production operations from completing.
How can this impact to the nightly process be minimized?
A. Set a QoS value of 8 for MIR Copy Pace
B. Set a QoS value of 0 for MIR Copy Pace
C. Set SPC value of 1 on the Exchange LUNs
D. Set SPC value of 8 on the clone LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.10 All applications running on an EMC Symmetrix VMAX array are experiencing poor
performance.
The environment is characterized by:
Dissimilar workloads
Inefficient resource utilization
Service levels not being met
What can be done to guarantee service levels of business critical applications?
A. Implement dynamic cache partitioning
B. Balance throughput across ports
C. Re-map devices to evenly map the workload
D. Provision new storage for applications
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 312-49
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator )
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. FAT16
D. FAT12
Answer: D

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NO.2 It takes _____________ mismanaged case/s to ruin your professional reputation as a computer
forensics examiner?
A. by law, three
B. quite a few
C. only one
D. at least two
Answer: C

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NO.3 If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?
A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file?
A. 128
B. 64
C. 32
D. 16
Answer: C

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NO.5 A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited
adult websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect
did indeed visit these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the
cookie cache. Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the
investigator do to prove the violation? Choose the most feasible option.
A. Image the disk and try to recover deleted files
B. Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
C. Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
D. Approach the websites for evidence
Answer: A

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NO.6 The offset in a hexadecimal code is:
A. The last byte after the colon
B. The 0x at the beginning of the code
C. The 0x at the end of the code
D. The first byte after the colon
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four
30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for
you to acquire digital evidence from this network?
A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace
B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file
C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC
D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does the superblock in Linux define?
A. file system names
B. available space
C. location of the first inode
D. disk geometry
Answer: B, C, D

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NO.9 You are working for a large clothing manufacturer as a computer forensics investigator and are
called in to investigate an unusual case of an employee possibly stealing clothing designs from
the company and selling them under a different brand name for a different company. What you
discover during the course of the investigation is that the clothing designs are actually original
products of the employee and the company has no policy against an employee selling his own
designs on his own time. The only thing that you can find that the employee is doing wrong is that
his clothing design incorporates the same graphic symbol as that of the company with only the
wording in the graphic being different. What area of the law is the employee violating?
A. trademark law
B. copyright law
C. printright law
D. brandmark law
Answer: A

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NO.10 Before you are called to testify as an expert, what must an attorney do first?
A. engage in damage control
B. prove that the tools you used to conduct your examination are perfect
C. read your curriculum vitae to the jury
D. qualify you as an expert witness
Answer: D

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NO.11 The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on:
A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-49   312-49   312-49   312-49

NO.12 When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a
whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what
U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?
A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
Answer: D

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NO.13 What type of attack occurs when an attacker can force a router to stop forwarding packets by
flooding the router with many open connections simultaneously so that all the hosts behind the
router are effectively disabled?
A. digital attack
B. denial of service
C. physical attack
D. ARP redirect
Answer: B

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NO.14 When examining the log files from a Windows IIS Web Server, how often is a new log file
created?
A. the same log is used at all times
B. a new log file is created everyday
C. a new log file is created each week
D. a new log is created each time the Web Server is started
Answer: A

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NO.15 With the standard Linux second extended file system (Ext2fs), a file is deleted when the inode
internal link count reaches ________.
A. 0
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.16 A(n) _____________________ is one that's performed by a computer program rather than the
attacker manually performing the steps in the attack sequence.
A. blackout attack
B. automated attack
C. distributed attack
D. central processing attack
Answer: B

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NO.17 In the context of file deletion process, which of the following statement holds true?
A. When files are deleted, the data is overwritten and the cluster marked as available
B. The longer a disk is in use, the less likely it is that deleted files will be overwritten
C. While booting, the machine may create temporary files that can delete evidence
D. Secure delete programs work by completely overwriting the file in one go
Answer: C

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NO.18 When examining a file with a Hex Editor, what space does the file header occupy?
A. the last several bytes of the file
B. the first several bytes of the file
C. none, file headers are contained in the FAT
D. one byte at the beginning of the file
Answer: D

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NO.19 A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is
an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the
attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the
excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting,
basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.)
03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084
47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............
00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ...............
3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.

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Code d'Examen: 312-76
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Disaster Recovery Professional Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 290 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following types of attacks occurs when an attacker successfully inserts an intermediary
software or program between two communicating hosts?
A. Password guessing attack
B. Dictionary attack
C. Man-in-the-middle attack
D. Denial-of-service attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are responsible for network and information security at a large hospital. It is a significant concern
that any change to any patient record can be easily traced back to the person who made that change.
What is this called?
A. Availability
B. Non repudiation
C. Confidentiality
D. Data Protection
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following response teams aims to foster cooperation and coordination in incident
prevention, to prompt rapid reaction to incidents, and to promote information sharing among members
and the community at large?
A. CERT
B. CSIRT
C. FedCIRC
D. FIRST
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following options is an intellectual property right to protect inventions?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Copyright
D. Utility model
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.5 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTA
B. RPO
C. RCO
D. RTO
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following control measures are considered while creating a disaster recovery plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Detective measures
B. Supportive measures
C. Corrective measures
D. Preventive measures
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) is used to support the overall Business Continuity
Management (BCM) in order to ensure that the required IT infrastructure and the IT service provision are
recovered within an agreed business time scales. Which of the following are the benefits of implementing
IT Service Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It prioritizes the recovery of IT services by working with BCM and SLM.
B. It minimizes costs related with recovery plans using proper proactive planning and testing.
C. It confirms competence, impartiality, and performance capability of an organization that performs
audits.
D. It minimizes disruption in IT services when it follows a major interruption or disaster.
Answer: A,B,D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76

NO.8 Pete works as a Network Security Officer for Gentech Inc. He wants to encrypt his network traffic. The
specific requirement for the encryption algorithm is that it must be a symmetric key block cipher. Which of
the following techniques will he use to fulfill this requirement?
A. AES
B. DES
C. IDEA
D. PGP
Answer: B

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NO.9 Availability Management deals with the day-to-day availability of services. Which of the following takes
over when a 'disaster' situation occurs?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Continuity Management
D. Service Reporting
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a set of exclusive rights granted by a state to an inventor or his assignee for a
fixed period of time in exchange for the disclosure of an invention?
A. Snooping
B. Patent
C. Utility model
D. Copyright
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following tools in Helix Windows Live is used to reveal the database password of password
protected MDB files created using Microsoft Access or with Jet Database Engine?
A. Asterisk logger
B. FAU
C. Access Pass View
D. Galleta
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following cryptographic system services assures the receiver that the received message
has not been altered?
A. Authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Non-repudiation
D. Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the simulation of the disaster recovery plans?
A. Walk-through test
B. Full operational test
C. Paper test
D. Preparedness test
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen   312-76   312-76

NO.14 Which of the following statements are true about classless routing protocols?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. The same subnet mask is used everywhere on the network.
B. They extend the IP addressing scheme.
C. IGRP is a classless routing protocol.
D. They support VLSM and discontiguous networks.
Answer: B,D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.15 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. Your project has several risks that will affect several
stakeholder requirements. Which project management plan will define who will be available to share
information on the project risks?
A. Communications Management Plan
B. Resource Management Plan
C. Risk Management Plan
D. Stakeholder management strategy
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen   312-76

NO.16 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency action team
B. Emergency-management team
C. Damage-assessment team
D. Off-site storage team
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76

NO.17 Which of the following BCP teams is the first responder and deals with the immediate effects of the
disaster?
A. Emergency management team
B. Damage assessment team
C. Off-site storage team
D. Emergency action team
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76   312-76 examen

NO.18 Della works as a security manager for SoftTech Inc. She is training some of the newly recruited
personnel in the field of security management. She is giving a tutorial on DRP. She explains that the major
goal of a disaster recovery plan is to provide an organized way to make decisions if a disruptive event
occurs and asks for the other objectives of the DRP. If you are among some of the newly recruited
personnel in SoftTech Inc, what will be your answer for her question?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Guarantee the reliability of standby systems through testing and simulation.
B. Protect an organization from major computer services failure.
C. Minimize the risk to the organization from delays in providing services.
D. Maximize the decision-making required by personnel during a disaster.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.19 You work as a Database Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has a SQL Server 2005
computer. The company asks you to implement a RAID system to provide fault tolerance to a database.
You want to implement disk mirroring. Which of the following RAID levels will you use to accomplish the
task?
A. RAID-5
B. RAID-0
C. RAID-1
D. RAID-10
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76 examen   certification 312-76

NO.20 Which of the following statements best describes the difference between the role of a data owner and
the role of a data custodian?
A. The custodian makes the initial information classification assignments and the operations manager
implements the scheme.
B. The custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
operations manager.
C. The data custodian implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
data owner.
D. The data owner implements the information classification scheme after the initial assignment by the
custodian.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76   certification 312-76   certification 312-76

NO.21 You work as an Incident handling manager for Orangesect Inc. You detect a virus attack incident in the
network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus.
Which of the following phases in the Incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this
incident?
A. Eradication
B. Identification
C. Containment
D. Recovery
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   certification 312-76   312-76 examen

NO.22 Which of the following are some of the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Team members list
C. Risk analysis
D. Project schedule
Answer: A,B,C,D

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76   312-76   312-76   certification 312-76

NO.23 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify
the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this?
A. Quantitative analysis
B. Estimate activity duration
C. Risk identification
D. Qualitative analysis
Answer: D

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen   certification 312-76   312-76 examen   certification 312-76

NO.24 Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?
A. Cold backup site
B. Hot backup site
C. Warm backup site
D. Mobile backup site
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-76   312-76   certification 312-76

NO.25 Which of the following statements about disaster recovery plan documentation are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in backup tapes.
B. The documentation regarding a disaster recovery plan should be stored in floppy disks.
C. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored onsite only.
D. The disaster recovery plan documentation should be stored offsite only.
Answer: A,D

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   312-76 examen   312-76 examen   312-76 examen

NO.26 Which of the following levels of RAID provides security features that are availability, enhanced
performance, and fault tolerance?
A. RAID-10
B. RAID-5
C. RAID-0
D. RAID-1
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76 examen   certification 312-76   312-76

NO.27 Which of the following roles is responsible for the review and risk analysis of all the contracts on
regular basis?
A. The IT Service Continuity Manager
B. The Configuration Manager
C. The Supplier Manager
D. The Service Catalogue Manager
Answer: C

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NO.28 Fill in the blank with the appropriate number:
RAID-________ is a combination of RAID-1 and RAID-0.
A. 10
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76 examen

NO.29 Mark is the project manager of the HAR Project. The project is scheduled to last for eighteen months
and six months already passed. Management asks Mark that how often the project team is participating in
the risk reassessment of this project. What should Mark tell management if he is following the best
practices for risk management.?
A. At every status meeting of the project team, project risk management is an agenda item.
B. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-76   312-76

NO.30 Which of the following is established during the Business Impact Analysis by the owner of a process in
accepted business continuity planning methodology?
A. Recovery Consistency Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Point Objective
D. Recovery Time Actual
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-76   312-76

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Code d'Examen: EC1-349
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A

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NO.2 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   certification EC1-349   EC1-349 examen   EC1-349

NO.4 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D

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NO.6 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A

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NO.7 Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so
that
it can tie easily accessed at a later date.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   EC1-349   certification EC1-349

NO.8 During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   certification EC1-349   EC1-349   EC1-349

NO.9 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   EC1-349   certification EC1-349   EC1-349

NO.10 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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CWNP PW0-204 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PW0-204
Nom d'Examen: CWNP (Certified Wireless Security Professional (CWSP))
Questions et réponses: 181 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following wireless network security solutions refers to an authentication process in which a
user can connect wireless access points to a centralized server to ensure that all hosts are properly
authenticated?
A. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
B. IEEE 802.1x
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
Answer: B

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NO.2 You work as a System Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a wireless LAN network.
You want to implement a tool in the company's network, which monitors the radio spectrum used by the
wireless LAN network, and immediately alerts you whenever a rogue access point is detected in the
network. Which of the following tools will you use?
A. Firewall
B. WIPS
C. MFP
D. NAT
Answer: B

CWNP   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204

NO.3 Which of the following methods are capable of operating in wireless networks? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. EAP-TLS
B. LEAP
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TTLS
Answer: BAD

CWNP   PW0-204   PW0-204   PW0-204

NO.4 Which of the following protocols is used to provide on-demand authentication within an ongoing data
transmission?
A. LEAP
B. EAP
C. PPTP
D. CHAP
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have been hired to perform a penetration test on a client's network. You want to see if remote
connections are susceptible to eavesdropping or perhaps session hijacking.
Which network tool would be most helpful to you?
A. Vulnerability analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Performance analyzer.
D. Protocol analyzer
Answer: D

CWNP   PW0-204   PW0-204   PW0-204

NO.6 Which of the following protocols uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer
Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. SCP
D. SSL
Answer: D

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.

NO.7 Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. Kismet
B. AirSnort
C. Cain
D. PsPasswd
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by a firewall? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Shoulder surfing attack
B. Ping flood attack
C. URL obfuscation attack
D. Phishing attack
Answer: CDA

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NO.9 Which of the following protocols uses public-key cryptography to authenticate the remote computer?
A. SSL
B. Telnet
C. SCP
D. SSH
Answer: D

CWNP examen   PW0-204   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204

NO.10 Which of the following will you recommend for providing security?
A. HTTP
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. S/MIME
Answer: C

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NO.11 John, a malicious hacker, forces a router to stop forwarding packets by flooding it with many open
connections simultaneously so that all hosts
behind it are effectively disabled. Which of the following attacks is John performing?
A. Rainbow attack
B. DoS attack
C. Replay attack
D. ARP spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following are the important components of the IEEE 802.1X architecture? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Authenticator server
B. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
C. Supplicant
D. Authenticator
Answer: CAD

CWNP   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204   PW0-204 examen

NO.13 Which of the following is a common Windows authentication protocol used by the IEEE 802.1X security
standard.?
A. TACACS
B. LDAP
C. RADIUS
D. SSL/TLS
Answer: C

CWNP   certification PW0-204   certification PW0-204

NO.14 Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. Kismet
B. AirSnort
C. Cain
D. PsPasswd
Answer: B

CWNP examen   PW0-204   PW0-204   PW0-204

NO.15 Which of the following is a part of computer network that is used to prevent unauthorized Internet users
from accessing private networks
connected to the Internet?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Wired Equivalent Privacy
C. Intrusion detection system
D. Firewall
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following authentication processes are specified by the IEEE 802.11 standards? Each
correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Open System authentication
B. RADIUS
C. Shared Key authentication
D. EAP
Answer: AC

CWNP   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204   PW0-204

NO.17 Which of the following methods can be used to detect a rogue access point in order to enhance the
security of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Install WIPS
B. Hide the SSID of all AP
C. Check in the managed AP list
D. Use of wireless sniffing tools
Answer: ADC

CWNP examen   PW0-204   PW0-204   PW0-204 examen   PW0-204

NO.18 Which of the following works as a protocol for providing secure communications between wireless
clients and wireless access points?
A. Virtual Private Network
B. Firewall
C. Packet filtering
D. Robust Secure Network
Answer: D

CWNP examen   PW0-204   PW0-204   certification PW0-204

NO.19 Which of the following is a type of security management for computers and networks in order to
identify security breaches?
A. EAP
B. IPS
C. IDS
D. ASA
Answer: C

CWNP   PW0-204   PW0-204

NO.20 Victor wants to use Wireless Zero Configuration (WZC) to establish a wireless network connection
using his computer running on Windows XP
operating system. Which of the following are the most likely threats to his computer? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Information of probing for networks can be viewed using a wireless analyzer and may be used to gain
access.
B. Attacker by creating a fake wireless network with high power antenna cause Victor's computer to
associate with his network to gain access.
C. Attacker can use the Ping Flood DoS attack if WZC is used.
D. It will not allow the configuration of encryption and MAC filtering. Sending information is not secure on
wireless network.
Answer: AB

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Code d'Examen: PD1-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.2 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

CompTIA   certification PD1-001   PD1-001   PD1-001

NO.3 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD1-001   PD1-001 examen

NO.4 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.5 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.6 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.7 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.16 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.17 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.19 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.20 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: FC0-U11
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act 1990?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine "not
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or purposes for
which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or unlawful
processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A, D

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NO.2 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new PC's.
What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000 Professional client computer reports that he
is unable to access some files on the hard disk. However, he is able to successfully log on and access
other files. What should Mark do to resolve the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following cache levels are implemented on microprocessors? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Level 5 (L5) cache
B. Level 2 (L2) cache
C. Level 0 (L0) cache
D. Level 1 (L1) cache
Answer: B, D

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NO.8 Which of the following identifies a wireless network and is sometimes referred to as a "network name"?
A. BSSID
B. SSID
C. BSS
D. IBSS
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a wireless local area network
(WLAN). You want to prevent your wireless access point from being accessed by intruders. What will you
do to accomplish the task?
A. Implement auditing.
B. Implement WEP.
C. Implement SSL.
D. Implement IPSec.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: B, D

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NO.12 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista. Which Windows
utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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NO.13 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips would you
most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A, B

CompTIA   FC0-U11   FC0-U11   FC0-U11   FC0-U11

NO.16 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the
ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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NO.20 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups have
many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users? Each correct answer represents a part of
the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: C, D

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