Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IBM 00M-502

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Code d'Examen: 00M-502
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Power Systems with IBM i Sales Professional - v2)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 Which service must a customer purchase in reference to basic defect and usage of IBM operating
systems ?
A. Service Pack
B. Support Line
C. Software Maintenance
D. Electronic Customer Support
Answer: A

IBM examen   00M-502   certification 00M-502   00M-502

NO.2 Which of the following statements about virtualization on IBM i is correct?
A. Internal storage must be mirrored for data protection.
B. Ethernet connections between partitions and applications require adapters
C. Can host storage for System X and Blades servers running VMware and Windows.
D. Can host storage for i, AIX, Linux, VMware, and Windows running in partitions
Answer: C

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NO.3 What Input/Output devices can be offered on a 4-core Power 720 system.?
A. IOPs, HSL loop with Towers
B. SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e, Tape
C. 12X loop, SAS and SSD drives, PCI-e
D. DVD, HSL loop with Towers, Twinax controller
Answer: B

IBM   certification 00M-502   00M-502

NO.4 IBM i 7.1, in its DB2 component now supports an industry standard, XML, for exchanging information for
business processes and logiC. Why is this of value to customers and application providers?
A. Provides better query performance
B. They can encrypt a single column of data for security purposes.
C. New WRKWEBQRY functions simplfy this support and is easier to use.
D. Makes it easier to process in DB2 via XML data type and store these documents.
Answer: D

IBM   00M-502   certification 00M-502   00M-502 examen

NO.5 The Lx86 feature of PowerVM enables which of the following?
A. Running Linux Intel binary applications under POWER Linux
B. Running Windows applications under Linux implemented on iSCSI
C. Running Linux Intel binary applications in the PASE environment
D. Running Linux Intel binaries in a Windows integrated environment
Answer: A

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BAS-001 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: BAS-001
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three statements describe valid business benefits of IBM OpenPages platform modules?
(Choose three.)
A. Provides confidence that compliance is achieved, risks are mitigated and corporate policies and
procedures are enforced.
B. Provides a compliance and business focused view into the corporate general ledger.
C. Provides executive management with assurance into the state of compliance.
D. Standardizes compliance across regulations to reduce cost and deliver a holistic understanding
of all compliance risk.
E. Provides assurance to executive management that the company meets all corporate board
governance goals.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 The Object Manager tool provided with OpenPages allows for the import and export of data
in
which format?
A. XLS
B. SQL
C. PDF
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.3 You want to configure new fields in the IBM OpenPages platform using data types. What are
three
valid data types? (Choose three.)
A. Single file
B. Reporting fragment
C. Picklist
D. Currency
E. Rich text
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new
OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organization structure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are using the OpenPages GPO platform and want to develop a new workflow. Which tool
would you use?
A. Interstage BPM Console
B. Interstage BPM Workflow Studio
C. CommandCenter Query Studio
D. Microsoft Office Visio
Answer: B

IBM   BAS-001 examen   certification BAS-001

NO.6 Which three values are correct Object Manager command line parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Dump or “d”
B. Extract or “e”
C. Load or “l”
D. Verify or “V”
E. Test or“t”
Answer: A,C,D

IBM   BAS-001   BAS-001

NO.7 A user requires the ability to create child Processes directly associated to parent Business
Entities
in the application. Which minimum Security Access Control Permissions should the administrator
grant to the user’s role template?
A. Grant read access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
B. Grant read/write access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
C. Grant read/write/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write access on the Process.
D. Grant read/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
Answer: B

IBM   BAS-001   BAS-001   BAS-001

NO.8 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

IBM   BAS-001   BAS-001 examen   BAS-001   BAS-001 examen

NO.9 In IBM OpenPages, you want to configure a profile. Which three functions are available?
(Choose
three.)
A. Associate users.
B. Add new fields to the database.
C. Set localized object text.
D. Set up a home page.
E. Configure views for an object type.
Answer: A,D,E

certification IBM   BAS-001   BAS-001 examen   BAS-001 examen

NO.10 You are working with an AECON data sheet. What are two global configurations? (Choose
two.)
A. Dependent picklists
B. Detail View
C. Field dependencies
D. Activity Views
Answer: A,C

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IBM CUR-051 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CUR-051
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM i2 Analyst Exam)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 An intelligence analyst has just created a new custom attribute. However, when the analyst
inputs the data, only the Attribute Symbol is displayed on the chart and not the data entered. Which
of the following actions would allow the data to be displayed?
A. Change the attribute type to "Number".
B. Select "Show All" under the View tool bar.
C. Check the "Value" box under the attribute class properties.
D. Check the "Show on Chart" box under the attribute class properties.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a built-in dissemination tool?
A. Export to PDF
B. Save as spreadsheet
C. Send (as email attachment)
D. Save complete chart as picture
Answer: B

IBM examen   CUR-051   CUR-051   CUR-051

NO.3 An analyst is creating a chart to show the order in which telephone calls took place. The
analyst adds the date and time of the call to the link, but cannot make the link controlling. Why is
that option NOT available?
A. Links can never be made controlling.
B. The duration of the call is also required.
C. Links can only be made controlling between Theme Lines.
D. Links can only be made controlling between Event Frames.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An intelligence analyst is working on a case and needs to present a chart with a set of phone
calls between two suspects. Which of the following would allow the analyst to automatically align
the links to the Time Bar, in the correct chronological sequence?
A. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
B. Enter the Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
C. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Ordered.
D. Enter a Description of Date and Time, and set to Controlling.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following graphic types CANNOT be used to add a photo to an entity?
A. Portable Bitmap Format (.pbm)
B. Portable Network Graphics (.png)
C. File Interchange Format (.jpg, .jpeg)
D. Device Independent Bitmaps (.bmp, .dib)
Answer: A

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NO.6 An intelligence analyst has been given an association chart with telephones and telephone call
links. The analyst would like to see the calls placed in time and date order, so the analyst decides to
change the chart into a timeline. How can the analyst change the telephone entities on the chart?
A. Change the Entity Type to Theme Line
B. Change the Entity Type to Event Frame
C. Change the Entity Representation to Theme Line
D. Change the Entity Representation to Event Frame
Answer: C

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NO.7 Frames can be used to draw attention to key entities. Which of the following is NOT a reason
to use frames in a chart?
A. To distinguish groups of entities.
B. To map entities to Google Earth.
C. To indicate entities with shared attributes as a result of applying Conditional Formatting.
D. To change the appearance of entities selected using analysis tools such as filtering or Social
Network Analysis.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A researcher wants to move a Legend to another area on a chart. How can the Legend be
moved to the new area?
A. Right-click and drag.
B. Hold the Ctrl key and drag.
C. Change the Legend Properties to "Free".
D. Click the Edit button within Legend Items.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: A2090-730
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: DB2 9 Family Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 303 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an OLTP database?
A. Granular transactions
B. Current data
C. Optimized for queries
D. Frequent updates
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is the main feature of an OLTP application?
A. Summarized queries
B. Granular transactions
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Heterogeneous data sources
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a
Linux server
that has 6 CPUs?
A. DB2 Express Edition
B. DB2 Personal Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

IBM   certification A2090-730   A2090-730   A2090-730

NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a data warehouse?
A. Summarized queries that perform aggregations and joins
B. Heterogeneous data sources
C. Voluminous historical data
D. Sub-second response time
Answer: D

IBM   A2090-730   A2090-730   A2090-730

NO.5 Which of the following best describes the difference between the DB2 Spatial Extender
and the DB2
Geodetic Extender?
A. The DB2 Spatial Extender uses a latitude-longitude coordinate system; the DB2 Geodetic
Extender
uses a planar, x- and y-coordinate system
B. The DB2 Geodetic Extender is used to describe points, lines, and polygons; the DB2
Spatial Extender
is used to find area, endpoints, and intersects
C. The DB2 Spatial Extender treats the world as a flat map; the DB2 Geodetic Extender
treats the world
as a round globe
D. The DB2 Geodetic Extender can be used to manage information like the locations of office
buildings or
the size of a flood zone; the DB2 Spatial Extender can be used for calculations and
visualizations in
disciplines like military command/control and asset management, meteorology and
oceanography
Answer: C

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NO.6 For which of the following is a data warehouse optimized?
A. Backup and recovery
B. Transactions
C. Security
D. Queries
Answer: D

IBM examen   certification A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.7 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on
an HP-UX server?
A. DB2 Express-C
B. DB2 Express
C. DB2 Personal Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: D

IBM   A2090-730 examen   A2090-730 examen

NO.8 Which of the following is the lowest cost DB2 product that can be legally installed on a
Windows server
that has 2 CPUs?
A. DB2 Everyplace
B. DB2 Express Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

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NO.9 A client application on z/OS must access a DB2 database on a Solaris Server. At a
minimum, which of
the following products must be installed on the Solaris workstation?
A. DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition and DB2 ConnectEnterprise Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following tools can be used to schedule a backup operation that is to be
run every
Sunday evening?
A. Journal
B. Task Center
C. Activity Monitor
D. Command Line Processor
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen   A2090-730 examen

NO.11 Which of the following products is allowed to access other DB2 servers, but cannot
accept requests
from other remote clients.?
A. DB2 Personal Edition
B. DB2 Workgroup Server Edition
C. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
D. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification A2090-730   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.12 What is the SQL Performance Monitor used for?
A. To examine the health of a DB2 Database Manager instance
B. To visually construct complex DML statements and examine the results of their execution
C. To schedule tasks, run tasks, and send notifications about completed tasks to other users
D. To analyze database operations performed against a DB2 for i5/OS database "Pass Any
Answer: D

IBM examen   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.13 Which of the following tools can be used to automate table reorganization operations?
A. Control Center
B. Command Center
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following DB2 products can only be installed on a System i server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 for i5/OS
C. DB2 Data Warehouse Edition
D. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
Answer: B

IBM   A2090-730   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.15 Which two of the following allow you to perform administrative tasks against database
objects?
A. Control Center
B. Journal
C. Command Line Processor
D. Task Center
E. Health Center
Answer: AC

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NO.16 What is the purpose of the Design Advisor?
A. To analyze workloads and make recommendations for indexes and MQTs
B. To present a graphical representation of a data access plan and recommend design
changes that will
improve performance
C. To replicate data between a DB2 database and another relational database
D. To configure clients so they can access databases stored on remote servers
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following products must be installed on an AIX server in order to build an
application for
AIX that will access a DB2 for z/OS database?
A. DB2Enterprise Server Edition
B. DB2 Personal Developer's Edition
C. DB2 Universal Developer's Edition
D. DB2 Universal DatabaseEnterprise Edition and DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition
Answer: C

certification IBM   A2090-730   certification A2090-730   A2090-730

NO.18 Which of the following describes how DB2 9 stores an XML document if the XML
Extender is not used?
A. CLOB
B. BLOB
C. Hierarchically
D. Rows and columns
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following tasks can NOT be performed using the Developer Workbench?
A. Develop and debug an SQL stored procedure
B. Develop and debug a user-defined data type
C. Develop and debug a user-defined function
D. Develop and run XML queries
Answer: B

IBM examen   A2090-730   A2090-730 examen

NO.20 Which of the following is NOT true about XML columns?
A. Data can be retrieved by SQL.
B. Data can be retrieved byXQuery.
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent and child relationships.
D. Access to any portion of an XML document can be direct, without reading the whole
document.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following is the major difference between relational data and XML data?
A. Relational data is self-describing; XML data is not
B. Relational data has inherent ordering; XML data does not
C. Relational data must be tabular; XML data does not have to be tabular
D. Relational data is comprised of entities; XML data is comprised of numbers, characters,
and dates
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which of the following products is used to shred extensible markup language
documents?
A. DB2 AVI Extender
B. DB2 Text Extender
C. DB2 XML Extender
D. DB2 Spatial Extender
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which of the following can be viewed with the Journal?
A. Historical information about tasks, database changes, messages, and notifications
B. Information about licenses associated with each DB2 9 product installed on a particular
system
C. Graphical representations of data access plans chosen for SQL statements
D. Warning and alarm thresholds for database indicators
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following tools can make recommendations for indexes and/or MQTs to
improve the
performance of DB2 applications?
A. Design Advisor
B. Visual Explain
C. Performance Advisor
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following tools can be used to catalog a database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Alert Center
C. Journal
D. Configuration Assistant
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following is true about XML columns?
A. XML columns are used to store XML documents as a hierarchical set of entities
B. OnlyXQuery can be used to retrieve an XML document from an XML column
C. XML columns must be altered to accommodate additional parent/child relationships if they
are used in
referential constraints
D. In order to access any portion of an XML document stored in an XML column, the entire
document
must be retrieved
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is used to create and debug user-defined functions?
A. SQL Assist
B. Control Center
C. Command Editor
D. Developer Workbench
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which product must be installed on z/OS to allow a COBOL program running on that
machine to
access data on a remote DB2 for z/OS server?
A. DB2 for z/OS
B. DB2 Run-Time Client for z/OS
C. DB2 Connect Enterprise Edition for z/OS
D. z/OS Application Connectivity to DB2 for z/OS and OS/390
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which tool must be used to analyze all of the database operations performed by an
application against
a DB2 for i5/OS database?
A. Visual Explain
B. Activity Monitor
C. SQL Performance Monitor
D. DB2 Performance Monitor
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which of the following DB2 tools allows a user to set DB2 registry parameters?
A. Task Center
B. Visual Explain
C. Configuration Assistant
D. Satellite Administration Center
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C2140-842
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Functional Tester for Java)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 What can be tested when recording a verification point?
A.an objects data only
B.an objects data or properties only
C.whether or not the object is working
D.an objects data, properties, or existence
Correct:D

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NO.2 How do you start the application under test?
A.use the Windows Start menu
B.simply begin recording
C.open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D.click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar
Correct:D

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NO.3 Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following
?
(Choose three.)
A.an external .csv file
B.another Functional Tester datapool
C.an existing TestManager datapool
D.an access (.mdb) file
Correct:A B C

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NO.4 Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)
A.use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B.substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C.create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D.create scripts in c#
Correct:A B C

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NO.5 While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.
A.appears at the conclusion of recording
B.is only displayed on the toolbar
C.does not appear
D.displays a message for each action
Correct:D

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NO.6 When is the best time to use data-driven testing?
A.when the test only needs to be run once
B.when the test steps change based on the test input data
C.when the test must be run multiple times with different data
D.when the test requires a lot of manual data entry
Correct:C

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NO.7 What can you use to select an object as a verification point?
A.the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B.the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C.the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D.the delay method, the scripting method, or the pointer method
Correct:C

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NO.8 How do you stop recording?
A.click the Stop Recording button on the recording toolbar
B.end the application under test
C.close RFT
D.close the recording monitor
Correct:A

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NO.9 A recording is started by:
A.Entering script_record on the command line
B.creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C.starting the application under test
D.Starting RFT
Correct:B

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NO.10 You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script
with
references to datapool variables.
A.share
B.associate
C.run
D.disassociate
Correct:B

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Certification IBM de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen A2180-377, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A2180-377
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Admin)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web
application running
in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web
application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.3 What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them
together in a
topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the
following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF

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NO.5 Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated
repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating
system registry
and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating
system
user ID App1Admin.
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure
Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time
and was surprised
that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options, as
stated in the
Information Center.
What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A.The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B.The system administrator is installing a variant of WebSphere Application Server that is not
Network
Deployment.
C.The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible with
WebSphere
Application Server.
D.A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and
check the
logs before starting over again.
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management
needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a
request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log
indicates an exit
code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this
result?
A.The Web server installed successfully.
B.The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C.The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server
installation.
D.The target operating system determined that it is compatible with WebSphere Application
Server and
had configured environment variables for it.
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D

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NO.11 Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the
manageprofiles
command-line facility?
A.Delete a profile
B.Secure a profile
C.Federate a profile
D.Update profile templates
ANSWER: A

IBM   certification A2180-377   A2180-377   A2180-377

NO.12 Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation
of WebSphere
Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated
in the future.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include
administrative
security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments
to be done
over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other
facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP
Session
persistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings,
which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a
farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.17 A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application
within a flexible
management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using
wsadmin scripts by
connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE

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NO.18 How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on
different hosts in a
network?
By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative
agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
node agents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through
their
administrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service.
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has
been
updated with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A.Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B.Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C.Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D.Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris
host.
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated
with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A.Server roots
B.Cell persistent
C.Node persistent
D.System namespace
ANSWER: C

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NO.21 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight
transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

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NO.22 An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the
administrator chose not to
create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files.
If, in the future, the administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks
will be
necessary?
A.Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B.Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
ANSWER: A

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NO.23 Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for
establishing and
maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B

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NO.24 How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A.Specified in the installation.properties file
B.Specified as a parameter in the launchpad user interface
C.Included as a command-line option on the install command
D.Included as a command-line option on the launchpad application
ANSWER: C

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NO.25 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile
Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative
console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile
Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

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NO.26 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node
groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration
purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload
management.
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0
and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be
taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

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NO.28 Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs
automatically after
installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A

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NO.29 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a
flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment
manager.
ANSWER: A

IBM examen   A2180-377   A2180-377

NO.30 In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management
environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: C2090-737
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

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NO.2 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem.
What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.3 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They
currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action
should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the
backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

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NO.4 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9.
Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that
might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages
with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

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NO.5 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems
programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2.
Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE
to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify
the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM
related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

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NO.7 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both
copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is
corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this
situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery
using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents
of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER
TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

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NO.9 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER
utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be
recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.10 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention
is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

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NO.11 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve
the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD
REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set
with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

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NO.12 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with
SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is
correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-
operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log
points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.13 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the
class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.14 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as
"STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has
been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the
information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the
BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.15 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock
contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query
transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.16 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2
for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data
Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.17 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves
just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.18 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The
job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which
statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many
applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

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NO.19 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to
determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

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NO.20 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem.
What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.21 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same
SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be
performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a
data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery
for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

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NO.22 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already
used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9.
Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog
tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.23 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The
subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist;
the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to
Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode
describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.24 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires
which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.25 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy
disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

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NO.26 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in
a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery
site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that
can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data
sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior
to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at
the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.27 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in
DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this
functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the
DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

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NO.28 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the
system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter
to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system
parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system
parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system
parameters.
Answer:A D

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NO.29 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as
necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as
necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run
DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

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NO.30 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure
occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

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