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Code d'Examen: A2180-377
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0, Core Admin)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 A system administrator wants to improve response time and system load of a Web
application running
in a clustered environment.
What might the system administrator attempt to decrease the response time of the Web
application?
A.Configure dynamic caching
B.Enable memory-to-memory replication
C.Configure session replication to use a database.
D.Ensure that all cluster members are in the same node group.
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What are the three possible replication types for the dynamic caching service?
A.Client mode
B.Server mode
C.Not shared
D.Push only
E.Both push and pull
F.Broadcast mode
ANSWER: CDE

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NO.3 What is the advantage of deploying more than one messaging engine and linking them
together in a
topology that has multiple interconnected service integration buses (SIBus)?
A.Enable protocol transformation between buses.
B.Improve the availability of the persistent storage.
C.Spread messaging workload across multiple servers.
D.Preserve message ordering through the messaging engines.
ANSWER: C

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NO.4 What is the Data Replication Service (DRS) used for? Please choose three from the
following.
A.Node agents
B.Web servers
C.Caching Proxy
D.Dynamic cache replication
E.HTTP session persistence and failover
F.Stateful session EJB persistence and failover
ANSWER: DEF

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NO.5 Global security is turned on for a federated cell using a file-based federated
repository. The
administrator created a new security domain called App1Domain using local operating
system registry
and mapping it to the application server. The administrator also created a new local operating
system
user ID App1Admin.
Which one of the following is true when the new security domain is enabled to secure
Application1?
A.The administrator can access Application1.
B.The administrator can disable Application1 security.
C.App1Admin can disable Application1 security.
D.App1Admin can access the administrative console.
ANSWER: B

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NO.6 A system administrator is installing WebSphere Application Server for the first time
and was surprised
that the Profile Management Tool (PMT) did not have the expected profile type options, as
stated in the
Information Center.
What is the best conclusion for this finding?
A.The Java runtime being used by the installation program is not at the required version.
B.The system administrator is installing a variant of WebSphere Application Server that is not
Network
Deployment.
C.The target operating system the system administrator is installing on is not compatible with
WebSphere
Application Server.
D.A previous step in the installation has failed. The system administrator should cancel and
check the
logs before starting over again.
ANSWER: B

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NO.7 What is the most common role that naming plays in WebSphere Application Server?
A.Allows applications to obtain references to objects such as EJB homes.
B.Allows Java programs (clients and Java EE applications) to create, send, receive, and read
asynchronous requests, as messages.
C.Provides a runtime environment for enterprise beans within the application server.
D.Provides a secure facility to support customer's basic organizational entity management
needs.
ANSWER: A

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NO.8 What is the sequence of components which would typically be involved in the flow of a
request from a
Web browser to a servlet?
A.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and EJB Container
B.Load Balancer, Embedded HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in and Web Container
C.Edge Component, HTTP Server Plug-in, external HTTP Server, and Web Container
D.External HTTP Server, HTTP Server Plug-in, embedded HTTP Server and Web Container
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 A WebSphere Application Server installation finishes and the primary installation log
indicates an exit
code of INSTCONFSUCCESS. What is the best conclusion that can be resolved from this
result?
A.The Web server installed successfully.
B.The WebSphere Application Server installed successfully.
C.The InstallShield Wizard executed successfully to launch WebSphere Application Server
installation.
D.The target operating system determined that it is compatible with WebSphere Application
Server and
had configured environment variables for it.
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which type of server is recommended to be placed in the demilitarized zone (DMZ)?
A.Generic servers
B.Application servers
C.Managed HTTP servers
D.Unmanaged HTTP servers
ANSWER: D

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NO.11 Which one of the following profile related tasks can only be performed using the
manageprofiles
command-line facility?
A.Delete a profile
B.Secure a profile
C.Federate a profile
D.Update profile templates
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 Which of the following items best gives a reason to perform an unattended installation
of WebSphere
Application Server?
A.The installation for the particular target platform is being done for the first time.
B.The installation for the particular target platform has been done before and will be repeated
in the future.
C.The installation for WebSphere Application Server would initially not be able to include
administrative
security.
D.The installation for the particular target platform is expected to require a lot of adjustments
to be done
over several installation attempts.
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 Aside from the administrative console and the addNode command, what other
facilities does
WebSphere Application Server provide for federating nodes into cells?
A.wsadmin
B.The administrative agent
C.The Profile Management Tool (PMT)
D.Rational Application Developer Assembly and Deploy Module
ANSWER: C

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NO.14 What would have to be configured in order to implement memory-to-memory HTTP
Session
persistence?
A.Dynamic cache service and HTTP plug-in
B.Synchronization service and embedded Web server
C.Distributed environment settings in the web containers
D.Fast Response Cache Accelerator (FRCA) and external Web server
ANSWER: C

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NO.15 When backing up WebSphere Application Server configuration and runtime settings,
which of the
following commands would be relevant?
A.backupConfig -location location
B.restoreConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
C.manageprofiles -backupProfile -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
D.wsadmin -backupConfig -profileName profile_name -backupFile backupFile_name
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 What can the system administrator do to distribute incoming HTTP traffic across a
farm of Web servers?
A.Enable server affinity for each HTTP server in the cluster
B.Implement the Tivoli Access Manager as a load balancer
C.Implement the caching proxy server component of the Edge Components
D.Use the Load Balancer component of the Edge Components
ANSWER: D

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NO.17 A system administrator needs to modify the configuration of an enterprise application
within a flexible
management environment. The system administrator can make the modification using
wsadmin scripts by
connecting to which of the following components?
A.Node agent
B.Job manager
C.Work manager
D.Administrative agent
E.Deployment manager
ANSWER: BE

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NO.18 How could an administrator manage multiple stand-alone application servers on
different hosts in a
network?
By using:
A.a job manager which administers multiple application server nodes through administrative
agents.
B.a deployment manager which administers multiple application server nodes through their
node agents.
C.a high availability manager which administers multiple application server nodes through
their
administrative agents.
D.an administrative agent which administers multiple application server nodes through their
administrative service.
ANSWER: A

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NO.19 An administrator would like to use the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote Solaris host. The Solaris host has
been
updated with all the required operating system patches.
What is the next step the administrator must perform?
A.Configure an installation target for the Solaris host.
B.Download Solaris interim fixes to the CIM repository.
C.Use the Job manager to create a remote installation job.
D.Copy WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 software to the Solaris
host.
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 Applications that need to create additional persistent bindings of objects associated
with a specific
node can bind those objects under which of the following types of namespace partition?
A.Server roots
B.Cell persistent
C.Node persistent
D.System namespace
ANSWER: C

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NO.21 When configuring automated transaction peer recovery for recovering in-flight
transactions from the
transaction log, what is required from the file system?
A.RAID disks must be used to host the transaction log
B.Exclusive read only file locks and the ability to invalidate them
C.File locking must be disabled for Network File System Version 4 (NFSv4)
D.Lease-based exclusive locks on files
ANSWER: D

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NO.22 An administrator has created a deployment manager profile. However, the
administrator chose not to
create the Centralized Installation Manager (CIM) repository and populate it with the
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 product files.
If, in the future, the administrator wants to use the Centralized Installation Manager to install
WebSphere
Application Server Network Deployment V7.0 on a remote host, which of the following tasks
will be
necessary?
A.Create the CIM repository using the Installation Factory.
B.Create a new deployment manager profile including the CIM repository.
C.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation target.
D.Use the Centralized Installation Manager to create an installation package.
ANSWER: A

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NO.23 Which one of the following can be used to instantiate resource adapter classes for
establishing and
maintaining resource connections?
A.a data source
B.connection factories
C.connection pool settings
D.a JMS activation specification
ANSWER: B

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NO.24 How is the response file specified in a silent installation scenario?
A.Specified in the installation.properties file
B.Specified as a parameter in the launchpad user interface
C.Included as a command-line option on the install command
D.Included as a command-line option on the launchpad application
ANSWER: C

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NO.25 Which of the following options is NOT a valid method of running the Profile
Management Tool?
A.Run the command directly from a system console.
B.Select Profile Management Tool from the First Steps application.
C.Select System Administration -> Run Profile Management Tool in the administrative
console.
D.Check the Create a new WebSphere Application Server profile using the Profile
Management Tool
option at the end of the installation process.
ANSWER: C

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NO.26 Why does IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment utilize node
groups to implement
a distributed environment? To:
A.segment multiple security domains within a WebSphere cell.
B.define the logical grouping of application servers to scale horizontally or vertically.
C.enable mixed nodes with different capabilities within the same cell for administration
purposes.
D.allow application servers having the same applications installed to be grouped logically for
workload
management.
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 A system administrator has successfully installed WebSphere Application Server V7.0
and has run
the Installation Verification Tool (IVT) with a success message. Which additional step can be
taken to
further verify the installation?
A.Check to see if the InstallShield application will run again.
B Check to see if the installation directory specified exists in the file system.
CUse a browser to access the launch page of the IBM HTTP Server.
D.Use a browser to access the administrative console and log in successfully.
ANSWER: D

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NO.28 Which of the following is an option given in the First Steps application that runs
automatically after
installation?
A.Start the server.
B.Execute wsadmin.
C.Configure resources.
D.Run the Snoop servlet.
ANSWER: A

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NO.29 Which of the following statements most accurately describes the relationship between a
flexible
management topology and the network deployment cell?
A.Flexible management can be an alternative to the network deployment cell model.
B.Flexible management eliminates the need for node agents in a network deployment cell.
C.The flexible management topology is a replacement for the network deployment cell.
D.The flexible management job manager can perform all the tasks of the deployment
manager.
ANSWER: A

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NO.30 In order for a deployment manager to participate in a flexible management
environment, which one of
the following steps must be completed?
A.Register directly with the job manager.
B.Register with the node agent on the job managers host.
C.Register with an administrative agent on the job managers host
D.First register with a local administrative agent, and then register with the job manager.
ANSWER: A

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Code d'Examen: C2090-737
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

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NO.2 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem.
What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.3 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They
currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action
should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the
backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

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NO.4 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9.
Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that
might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages
with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

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NO.5 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems
programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2.
Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE
to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify
the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM
related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

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NO.7 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both
copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is
corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this
situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery
using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents
of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER
TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

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NO.9 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER
utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be
recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.10 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention
is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

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NO.11 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve
the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD
REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set
with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

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NO.12 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with
SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is
correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-
operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log
points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.13 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the
class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.14 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as
"STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has
been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the
information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the
BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.15 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock
contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query
transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.16 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2
for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data
Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.17 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves
just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.18 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The
job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which
statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many
applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

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NO.19 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to
determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

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NO.20 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem.
What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.21 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same
SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be
performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a
data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery
for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

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NO.22 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already
used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9.
Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog
tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.23 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The
subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist;
the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to
Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode
describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.24 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires
which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.25 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy
disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

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NO.26 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in
a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery
site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that
can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data
sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior
to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at
the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.27 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in
DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this
functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the
DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

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NO.28 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the
system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter
to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system
parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system
parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system
parameters.
Answer:A D

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NO.29 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as
necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as
necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run
DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

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NO.30 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure
occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

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Code d'Examen: A2040-951
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8.5 Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 95 Q&As

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NO.1 Ida has developed the needed functionality in the Customers XPage of her application.
The Web
design team has provided her with the internal.css stylesheet. After Ida imports the
stylesheet to her
application, how can she add the stylesheet to the XPage?
A.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. On the Style tab of the Properties view, click Add
style sheet to
page and select internal.css.
B.Open the XPage in Domino Designer. Right-click in an open area of the XPage and open
the Properties
window. Select internal.css for the Style Sheet option.
C.From the Applications view, select Resources > Style Sheets > internal.css. From the
Wiring tab of the
Properties view, click Add and select XPage > Customers.
D.From the Applications view, double-click to open the internal.css stylesheet. From the
Associations tab
of the Properties view, click Add association and select XPage > Customers.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Pablo has created an XPage to use for browsing and editing customer data. He would
like to add a
button which asks users if they are sure that they want to update the customer data. The
button saves the
changes if users indicate that they are sure.
How can Pablo create this button?
A.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, select
Save as the button type, and enable the Confirm option.
B.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, select
Save as the button type. A confirmation prompt is included by default.
C.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a server-side simple action.
Select Confirm
Action for the action.
D.Drag a button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties,
select Submit as the button type. From the events panel, add a client-side simple action.
Select Confirm
Action for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Nadine has discovered that XPages dynamically generates names of UI elements.
She therefore
cannot know ahead of time what an element's name is when it is passed to the nWeb
browser. What
function can Nadine use in her server-side JavaScript to fetch the generated element ID at
runtime?
A.getClientId
B.getXpageElementId
C.toString(elementId())
D.toString(getElementId())
Answer: A

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NO.4 Qiang needs to add a button to the Contact XPage. When clicked, this button should
delete the
currently-open document from the application. What is one way that Qiang can add this
button?
A.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the Operations tab, select Current document and Delete.
B.Drag the Data control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. In the Options area of the properties, select Delete for the Action, and
select Domino
Document for the Target.
C.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a server-
side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
D.Drag a Button control from the core controls onto the XPage canvas. From the Control
properties, set
the Label to Delete. On the events panel, select the Mouse onclick event, and add a client-
side simple
action. Select Delete for the action.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Lainey has recently upgraded to Notes Domino 8.5. She is now exploring the design of
her
applications to see what new features might be available. What is the purpose of the controls
palette that
Lainey sees?
A.The controls palette contains controls, such as Edit Box, File Upload, and Table that the
developer can
drag onto the XPage canvas.
B.The controls palette is another way to access the same items that are available from the
Create menu
for forms, views, XPages and other design elements.
C.The controls palette contains items like Edit Box, Button, and Label that the developer can
drag onto
XPages and forms. The controls palette is not available for views and pages.
D.The controls palette contains UI and other controls (such as Button, Link, and Image) that
allow the
developer to drag controls onto XPage or page elements. The controls palette is not available
for other
elements.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Alegria has saved her rental XPage, but there's an error in the XML source code. She
knows this
because the application navigator shows an icon of a red X next to the XPage. Where can
she find details
about the error?
A.Editor
B.Events view
C.Problems view
D.Application navigator
Answer: C

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NO.7 Brett wants to add a view to his XPage, configured so that it displays two rows for
each entry in the view.
What technique can he use to accomplish this task?
A.Add a View control to the XPage and configure the view's NumberOfRows property to '2'.
B.Add a View control to the XPage and change the NumberOfRows property on the All
Properties tab to
'2'.
C.Enable the Application property Use Java Views on Web and configure the view's
NumberOfRows
property to '2'.
D.Add a Repeat control to the XPage and place the appropriate fields within the Repeat
control in a two
row table.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Devin has been developing an application that includes an XPage. When he opened
the application in
Designer this morning, he noticed a small "x" icon by the XPages listing in the Applications
view. He had
closed several of the Eclipse views yesterday, and does not see any errors displayed in the
remaining
views. How can Devin locate the problems in the source code?
A.Right-click the "x" icon from the Applications view and select Go To Error. The Problems
view displays
with the cursor at the first error.
B.Display the Problems view by selecting Window > Show Eclipse Views > Problems. Right-
click a
displayed error and select Go To. The Source view opens to the line with the error.
C.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors.
Double-click
the name of the XPage and the Source view opens to the line with the error.
D.Click to expand the XPages listing. A small "x" icon displays by the XPage with the errors.
Double-click
the name of the XPage. The Source tab opens with the cursor at the first error line.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Martha has a Submit button on her Timesheet XPage. When clicked, the button uses
the Save
Document simple action to save the data to the underlying document. What parameters does
Martha
have to provide to the Save Document simple action?
A.none
B.pageName, mergeConflicts
C.forceSave, createResponse
D.documentName, saveImmediate
Answer: A

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NO.10 Odette is designing the index XPage that is used for navigation for her Domino
application. For what
purpose might Odette use the Outline view in Domino Designer in Eclipse while working with
the index
XPage?
A.To drag elements to rearrange sections and change the sequence of elements on the
XPage.
B.To drag controls from the controls palette onto a hierarchical representation of the XML
source code,
typically during the initial design of the XPage.
C.Aside from the expand and collapse icons, nothing in an Outline view is clickable.
Nonetheless, the
Outline view provides an extremely useful means to browse the XML elements of an XPage.
D.The Outline view provides a hierarchical representation of the XML source code in
XPages. The
developer can quickly update various settings from within the Outline view using right-click
menu options
for each element.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Viktor has been asked to begin modifying the corporate Domino Web sites to adhere
to XHTML
standards. He has enabled Enable enhanced HTML generation in the application properties.
When
testing a couple of the page elements in the Web browser and viewing the source, Viktor
notices that tags
like
and are still not correctly closed, that is.,
. What could be the problem?
A.This setting only applies to generated HTML, like passthrough HTML on a form.
B.The Web closes tags that have content. Tags that do not have content are ignored.
C.Each page element needs to be opened and saved to incorporate this new application
property setting.
D.The Web server generates valid XML, but there are exceptions. One of the exceptions is
passthrough
HTML.
Answer: D

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NO.12 The DiscussionTopics XPage includes a button to take users to the Feedback XPage.
Ted has created
the Feedback XPage. He now wants to add a Save and close button that saves the user's
input, and take
the user back to the DiscussionTopics XPage. What is one way he can do this task?
A.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the
onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();
B.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Set the button type to Submit. For the
onclick event,
add the following server-side JavaScript:Feedback.save();context.getUrl("..");
C.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For
the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Document. Specify DiscussionTopics as the
argument.
D.Drag a new Button control onto the XPage canvas. Leave the button type as Button. For
the onclick
event, add a simple action, selecting Save Data Sources. Specify DiscussionTopics as the
argument.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Jack needs to display the release version of the Sales application on the top of each
XPage of the site.
He has created a computed field at the top of the 'home' XPage, and is using this field to set
the release
version. Jack also needs to create a computed field that is placed at the top of each linked
Xpage.
What code should he provide for Computed Field of each linked page to display the release
version?
A.environment("relVersion");
B.applicationScope("relVersion");
C.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += environment.get("relVersion");strVersion
D.var strVersion = "Release: ";strVersion += applicationScope.get("relVersion");strVersion
Answer: D

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NO.14 Farah has added the main.css stylesheet to her XPage. She wants to associate the
helpText class
from main.css with the lblHelp Label control on the page. How can Farah do this task?
A.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas and enter this line:
B.Right-click lblHelp from the XPage. On the HTML tab of the Properties window, enter
helpText for the
Class option.
C.Select the lblHelp control on the Xpage. From the Style tab of the Properties window, enter
helpText for
the Class option.
D.Select the Source tab from the Xpage canvas. Locate the line. Below this line, add:
Answer: C

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NO.15 Kaitlyn has been asked to track which browser versions people are using to access the
Customers
XPage. She wants to add code that writes the browser version to the server log whenever a
user opens
the XPage.
What server-side code can Kaitlyn add to do this task?
A.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
var req = facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.getHeader("User-
Agent"));
B.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
var req =
facesContext.getExternalContext().getRequest();print(req.get(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
C.Add this code in the onLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader(HTTP_USER_AGENT));
D.Add this code in the beforePageLoad event of the XPage:
print(headerValues.getHeader("User-Agent"));
Answer: A

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NO.16 Abbas has imported the screen.css stylesheet into his application. He has discovered
that he needs to
edit the properties of some of the classes in the CSS. What steps can he follow to make the
needed
changes and save the CSS changes within the application?
A.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets.
Double-click
screen.css to use the built-in CSS editor.
B.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and expand Style Sheets.
Click
screen.css and in the Outline view select a class to use the built-in CSS editor.
C.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style
Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Design tab of the Properties view, double-click a
CSS class to
edit its properties.
D.From the application navigator in Designer, expand Resources and double-click Style
Sheets. Select
screen.css in the Design pane. From the Web Properties tab of the Properties view, double-
click a CSS
class to edit its properties.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Cade is building an XPage for the Sales application. What are the options from which
he can select
when defining a data source from the data palette?
A.@DbLookup and @DbColumn
B.Domino view and Domino document
C.Data connections and DB2 access views
D.Data connections, DB2 access views, and file resources
Answer: B

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NO.18 Barb is the lead developer for the Sales application and the Travel application. Each
application
consists of multiple databases. Within the application navigator, Barb would like to be able to
list the
databases of the Sales application together, and then, separate from the Sales application, to
list the
databases of the Travel application together. How can she do this?
A.For each application, create a subfolder under the Data folder. Move each set of databases
to the
appropriate subfolder. Drag each folder onto the application navigator.
B.Click the folders icon within the application navigator. Select the option to Create a new
Working Set.
Name the Working Set "Sales" and select the databases that comprise the Sales application.
Perform a
similar procedure for the Travel application.
C.From Domino Designer select Create > Working Set. Specify "Sales" for the name. From
the
application properties of each database of the Sales application, select "Sales" from the
Working Set
drop-down list. Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
D.Edit the application properties of each database that comprises the Sales application. On
the Design
tab, specify "Sales" for the Working Set option. Repeat for each database of the Sales
application.
Perform a similar procedure for the Travel application.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Neil has built an XPage and needs to have a field value to be calculated when the
user selects
something from a Combo box control. How can he do this task?
A.Add server-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script
Library to
execute the @SetField function.
B.Add client-side JavaScript to the Combo box's onclick event and use the @Function Script
Library to
execute the @SetField function.
C.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Modify Field type and
define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
D.Using the Combo box's onchange event, add a simple action of the Update Field type and
define the
target field and the calculation to determine its value.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Eamonn has developed and supported several Domino Web applications over the
years. He has been
told that one of the benefits of XPages is that XPages are AJAX-enabled. What is a benefit
that Eamonn
might expect to see if he incorporates AJAX-enabled XPages in his applications?
A.Faster development using Shared Widgets resources
B.Faster response time due to partial page refreshes
C.Faster response time because JavaScript is now all server-side
D.Faster development because XML is now automatically converted to JSON
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2180-371
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Web Services Development for IBM WebSphere Application Server V7.0)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 Which WSDL style is suited to sending binary tree nodes as part of a SOAP message?
A. RPC/literal
B. RPC/encoded
C. Document/encoded
D. Document/literal
E. Document/literal wrapped
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the biggest advantage of using Web services to create SOA solutions?
A. They are implemented using Java and XML
B. They support a client-server programming model
C. They are used to create tightly coupled applications
D. They are implemented using standardized technologies
Answer: D

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NO.3 The following methods are to be published as Web services to be invoked via SOAP messages and
validated with a schema:
public void myMethod(int x, float y);
public void myMethod(int x);
public void someOtherMethod(int x, float y);
Which WSDL style should be used?
A. RPC/literal
B. RPC/encoded
C. Document/encoded
D. Document/literal
E. Document/literal wrapped
Answer: A

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NO.4 The WS-I Simple SOAP Binding Profile V1.0 mandates that a message must serialize the envelope
according to which specification?
A. XML 1.0
B. WSDL 1.1
C. SOAP 1.1
D. HTTP 1.0
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why would a developer prefer to use SOAP Web services over REST Web services?
A. To provide message level security
B. To allow integration with Web 2.0 applications
C. To be able to use XML to format response messages
D. To be able to use the HTTP or HTTPS transport protocols
Answer: A

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NO.6 What must be included in a SOAP fault message when an error occurs due to a value in the message
Body element?
A. A detail element
B. A Body fault code
C. An application-specific fault code
D. A fault string element with a value of "Body"
Answer: A

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NO.7 A company is migrating their current JAX-WS Web service running on IBM WebSphere Application
Server V6.1 with the Feature Pack for Web Services to V7.0. The company wants to continue to support
V6.1 service consumers.
If the Web service has WS-AtomicTransaction enabled, what settings should be configured to support the
widest range of clients?
A. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Never" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
B. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Supports" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
C. Set the WS-AtomicTransaction to "Mandatory" in WS-Transaction policy of the policy set
D. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.0" in application policy set bindings
E. Set the "Default WS-Tx specification level" to "1.1" in application policy set bindings
Answer: BD

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NO.8 An RPC/encoded Web service experiences poor performance at high message volumes.
What can a developer do to improve this performance?
A. Turn off marshalling
B. Use binary encoding
C. Use RPC/literal encoding
D. Use document/literal encoding
E. Redesign to use more granular messaging
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which of the following is MOST likely to improve the performance of SOAP-based Web services?
A. Use message level security
B. Use fine-grained Web services
C. Use document/literal instead of RPC/encoded
D. Avoid stale data in the UDDI registry by turning off caching
Answer: C

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NO.10 A customer requires a Web service which ensures message delivery.
Which transport should be proposed?
A. SOAP/TCP
B. SOAP/JMS
C. SOAP/HTTP
D. SOAP/SMTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.11 Refer to the message in the exhibit.
Replace the ??? in the message with the appropriate namespace.
A. http://www.w3.org/2003/05/soap-envelope
B. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/
C. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap12/envelope/
D. http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap11/envelope/
Answer: A

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NO.12 A company has a high business value JAX-WS provider Web Service and cannot afford to lose any
messages.
What kind of quality of service should be used in conjunction with WS-ReliableMessaging?
A. Managed persistent
B. Managed non-persistent
C. Unmanaged non-persistent
D. Managed persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
E. Managed non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
F. Unmanaged non-persistent and Transaction (enableTransactionalOneWay)
Answer: D

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NO.13 When creating a Web service which requires reliable delivery of SOAP messages, which transport
should be used?
A. SOAP/TCP
B. SOAP/JMS
C. SOAP/HTTP
D. SOAP/SMTP
E. SOAP/HTTPS
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is used to invoke a Web service from an unmanaged client?
A. JAX-WS dispatch API
B. Deployment descriptor
C. @Resource annotation
D. @WebServiceRef annotation
E. Service and Interface classes
Answer: AE

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NO.15 Which specification provides recommendations on the use of encodings to maximize interoperability?
A. SAAJ V1.2
B. JAX-RPC V1.0
C. WS-Coordination
D. WS-I Basic Profile (BP) V1.1
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following business scenarios is the LEAST appropriate for Web services?
A. Expanding the reach of your company information.
B. Providing transactional services such as credit card payment processing.
C. Making existing services available to a business process to orchestrate services.
D. Enabling interoperability between heterogeneous services to create time-critical solutions.
Answer: D

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NO.17 A developer used wsimport to generate the skeleton code for a Web service implementation.
What is the purpose of the generated ObjectFactory class?
A. The ObjectFactory class is the generated Service Endpoint Interface class
B. The ObjectFactory class is the generated service provider class that is used by the JAX-WS client.
C. The ObjectFactory class takes the targetNamespace value and creates the directory structure.
D. The ObjectFactory class allows you to programatically construct new instances of the Java
representation for XML content.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the LEAST appropriate scenario for Web services?
A. To integrate legacy systems
B. To propagate security context
C. To expose fine grained operations
D. To use with process choreography
E. For B2B (business to business) applications
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can a developer ensure that a fault will occur if the service does not recognize a SOAP header
entry containing a transaction number?
A. Set the faultCode value to soap:Transaction
B. Include a Fault element in the SOAP message
C. Include a mustUnderstand attribute in the header entry
D. Include a detail element containing application-specific elements according to the XML Schema
Answer: C

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NO.20 The TCP/IP Monitor can be used to check the following:
A. SOAP/JMS
B. HTTP Header
C. WSDL document
D. SOAP messages
E. WS-I Compliance
Answer: BDE

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Code d'Examen: C2090-550
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM solidDB and IBM solidDB Universal Cache)
Questions et réponses: 122 Q&As

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NO.1 To execute the admin command "status", what is the correct syntax?
A. solsql -e "COMMAND 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
B. solsql -f "ADMIN STATUS 'status' " "tcp 1313" dba dba
C. solcon "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
D. solcon -e "status" "tcp 1313" dba dba
Answer: D

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NO.2 To set the transaction log retention space size for solidDB Universal Cache in the
solidDB
configuration file (solid.ini), which parameter is used?
A. [LogReader]
MaxLogSize
B. [Com]
ReadBufSize
C. [Hotstandby]
MaxMemLogSize
D. [indexFile]
CacheSize
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the correct setup topology when deploying IBM solidDB Universal Cache in
conjunction
with IBM solidDB High Availability (HotStandby) functionality?
A. CDC for solidDB instances are running on both the Primary node and on the Secondary
node,
each CDC instance locally connecting to one solidDB server.
B. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to both
Primary and Secondary solidDB servers.
C. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the back-end node, remotely connecting to the
Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed using Advanced Replication.
D. CDC for solidDB instance is running on the Primary node, locally connecting to the
Primary
server. Connection to the Secondary server is managed by transparent failover.
Answer: B

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NO.4 After completing the upgrade of the Primary server while performing a cold HSB-
incompatible
upgrade, what is the correct sequence of steps to upgrade to the Secondary server?
A. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
B. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgrade Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ACTIVE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
C. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ACTIVE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb connect' command to resynchronize the servers and restore to normal
operation.
D. Upgrade both servers; start and verify that the upgraded Primary server is in a PRIMARY
ALONE state; start the Secondary server and verify that it is in a SECONDARY ALONE
state;
perform a 'hsb netcopy' command followed by 'hsb connect' to resynchronize the servers and
restore to normal operation.
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have setup solidDB Universal Cache such that you have a table DBA.ORG in the
solidDB
front-end, being mirrored to a back-end database. After some time, you notice that the
subscription is Inactive and you try to start Mirroring (Continuous). The subscription state
remains
Inactive and the Event Log shows that the structure of table DBA.ORG has changed. What is
the
recommended course of action?
A. In solidDB, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
B. In the backend database, drop the ORG table and recreate it; then restart the subscription.
C. In solidDB, change the table definition to what it was previously; then restart the
subscription.
D. In the Management Console, use the 'Update table definition' option, for the source in the
Table
Mappings area; then restart the subscription.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A solidDB disk-based database instance has been optimally running for six months and
starts to
experience major degradation in performance. Upon executing an overall DB status report
using ADMIN
COMMAND "status", it is noted that the value for index writes after last merge is at
20945876. Why would this be a probable cause of the performance degradation?
A. A large value for this counter signifies that the creation of indices, after a large batch insert
process, has been halted leading to excessive memory usage which can cause serious
performance issues.
B. A large value for this counter signifies that a large number of transactions are being
checkpointed which can cause serious performance issues.
C. A large value for this counter signifies that the multi-versioning storage tree is not being
flushed
to disk due to a long running transaction which can cause serious performance issues.
D. A large value for this counter signifies that a transaction performing a merge-join is
utilizing a
large amount of memory causing potential process paging/swapping leading to serious
performance issues.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement regarding IBM solidDB Netbackup is true?
A. One IBM solidDB Netbackup Server can only serve one backup source server.
B. The command ADMIN COMMAND 'netbackup' is supported within the [Srv]At
configuration
parameter.
C. NetBackup copies logical database consisting of multiple files to one flat file to the
NetBackupDirectory by default.
D. If the specified remote directory does not exist, it is not created automatically by the
solidDB
Netbackup Server.
Answer: C

IBM   certification C2090-550   C2090-550

NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what does the attached replication diagram show?
A. All subscriptions are Mirroring Continuous.
B. The subscription FERO_BERW is Inactive.
C. The subscription FERO_BERW is Mirroring Continuous.
D. All subscriptions are using bidirectional Mirroring Continuous.
Answer: C

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NO.9 How many different installations of solidDB binaries can exist on the same host?
A. one
B. as many as can fit
C. one per release of solidDB
D. one per version of solidDB
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which software components must be installed to deploy IBM solidDB Universal Cache
and provide
access to data residing in an IBM DB2 database?
A. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2,
IBM
InfoSphere CDC Access Server, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
B. IBM solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM Universal Cache for DB2,IBM InfoSphere CDC Replication
Center,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
C. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC Access
Server,
and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
D. IBM solidDB, IBM InfoSphere CDC for solidDB, IBM DB2, IBM InfoSphere CDC for DB2,
IBM
InfoSphere CDC Replication Center, and IBM InfoSphere CDC Management Console
Answer: A

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NO.11 To execute the HotStandby administrative commands, which type of access privilege
would be
needed?
A. SYS_ADMIN_SYNC_ROLE
B. SYNC_ADMIN_ROLE
C. ADMIN_CONSOLE_ROLE
D. SYS_CONSOLE_ROLE
Answer: D

IBM examen   C2090-550   certification C2090-550   certification C2090-550

NO.12 It is possible when using solsql to run scripts either interactively or nested within
another script.
Which special character is used to identify that you want to execute a script file?
A. &
B. @
C. #
D. !
Answer: B

IBM examen   C2090-550   C2090-550

NO.13 To set up solidDB in a standalone, HotStandby or Universal Cache configuration,
where can the
configuration be performed?
A. The configuration is performed from the command line using the solid command with
suitable
option settings and values.
B. The configuration needs to be set in a solid.ini file.
C. The configurations can be set up by using the solsql tool and the operating system
services file.
D. The standalone configuration is set in the solid.ini file while the HotStandby and Universal
Cache configuration is set using the sqlcon tool.
Answer: B

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NO.14 What are two possible conflict resolution methods between solidDB and a back-end
database?
(Choose two.)
A. Source wins
B. Reference
C. Trigger
D. UserExit
E. Alert user
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 What are two possible reasons for high latency between a solidDB in-memory cache
and a back-end
database? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient network bandwidth for the volume of transactions that are being processed.
B. The network connection between the solidDB in-memory cache and the back-end
database is
down.
C. There is database lock contention on the target database.
D. The CDC instances are stopped.
E. Table mappings are not configured properly.
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which two are directly visible in solidDB server-side SQL Tracing? (Choose two.)
A. longest lasting statements in duration order
B. timestamps of statement preparation
C. timestamps of individual fetch operations
D. timestamps of individual rpc_session operations.
E. list of statements currently under execution
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 What are two methods for generating a trace file containing database statement
executions
occurring in the solidDB server? (Choose two.)
A. Enable SQL tracing within the solidDB server.
B. Enable ODBC tracing within the solidDB ODBC driver.
C. Enable ODBC tracing within the ODBC Driver Manager.
D. Enable JDBC tracing within the solidDB JDBC driver.
E. Enable JDBC tracing within the JDBC Driver Manager.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 When setting the [HotStandby]SafenessLevel = Auto, which two statements are true
about
transaction durability and HotStandby safeness level? (Choose two.)
A. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 1(Relaxed).
B. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Loggng]DurabilityLevel = 2(Adaptive).
C. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabilityLevel = 3(Strict).
D. SafenessLevel switches to 2-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 4(Custom).
E. SafenessLevel switches to 1-safe when using [Logging]DurabiltyLevel = 2(Adaptive).
Answer: A,B

IBM examen   C2090-550   C2090-550   C2090-550

NO.19 To administer a HotStandby database you need which privilege?
A. Sys_Sync_Admin_Role
B. Sys_Console_Role
C. Sys_Hotstandby_Role
D. Sys_Replication_Role
Answer: B

IBM   C2090-550   C2090-550   C2090-550

NO.20 What are two effective ways to increase the throughput of replication between the
solidDB in-
memory cache and a back-end database? (Choose two.)
A. Add a summarization column to the source.
B. Use multiple subscriptions instead of just one.
C. Update the mirror_commit_after_max_transactions parameter to a higher value.
D. Ensure that the conflict resolution mechanism is set to "source".
E. Use only the Mirror (Continuous) form of replication.
Answer: B,C

IBM   certification C2090-550   C2090-550   certification C2090-550   C2090-550

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