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Code d'Examen: EE0-512
Nom d'Examen: Exam Express (F5-Big-ip v9 local traffic management advanced)
Questions et réponses: 48 Q&As

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NO.1 As a part of the Setup Utility, the administrator sets the host name for the BIG-IP . What would
be the result if the two systems in a redundant pair were set to the same host name?
A. Host names do not matter in redundant pair communication.
B. In a redundant pair, the two systems will always have the same host name. The parameter is
synchronized between the systems.
C. The first time the systems are synchronized the receiving system will be assigned the same self-IP
addresses as the source system.
D. When the administrator attempts to access the configuration utility using the host name, they
will always connect to the active system.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which file contains the allowed IP addresses for SSH access?
A. /etc/hosts.deny
B. /etc/sshd_allow
C. /etc/hosts.allow
D. /etc/sshd_secure
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which result could come from running a single bigpipe command?
A. A monitor can be defined and associated with an existing pool.
B. A virtual server can be defined and associated with an existing pool.
C. An iRule can be define and associated with an existing virtual server.
D. A profile can be defined and associated with an existing virtual server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 If a self-IP's port lockdown is set to "allow 443", which statement describes allowed
communication to that address?
A. Access is available to the Configuration Utility.
B. Serial console access is prevented since only port 443 access is allowed.
C. Access may be available via SSH dependent upon the /etc/host.allow settings.
D. The partner BIG-IP will be able to synchronize and mirror connection and persistence information.
Answer: A

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NO.5 If a self-IP port lockdown is set to "allow default", which three ports will accept administrative
traffic? (Choose three.)
A. SSH
B. DNS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP
E. HTTPS
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 Which statement is true concerning packet filters?
A. Filters cannot prevent application viruses.
B. Filters cannot prevent the BIG-IP synching process from taking place.
C. The order of filters does not affect which traffic is accepted or denied.
D. In addition to administrator-created filters, there always exists a "deny all" filter that processes
traffic last.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-361
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Implementation Exam)
Questions et réponses: 319 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Celerra Data Mover file controls both the services used for name resolution and the order in
which they are used?
A.nsswitch.conf
B.nslookup.conf
C.hosts.conf
D.resolv.conf
Answer:A

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NO.2 You are implementing a Celerra CIFS solution. When discussing the mapping method choices, the site
administrator asks you to explain the significance of the user mapping method for CIFS users.
How do you respond to the site administrator?
A.CIFS servers that join the Windows domain are assigned domain SIDs. The mapping method is used to
uniquely identify the CIFS servers in the Windows AD domain to UNIX NFS servicers in the NIS domain.
B.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that requires UNIX style UIDs and GIDs for file and directory
permissions. Windows users and groups are identified with SIDs. The mapping method correlates UNIX
UIDs and GIDs to Windows SIDs for uniquely identifying users.
C.Celerra has a UxFS-based file system that stores UNIX style UIDs and GIDs and Windows SIDs for file
and directory permissions. The mapping method correlates the SIDs for local group permissions on the
CIFS server shares.
D.Stand-alone CIFS servers require a manual SID assignment when configured on a Celerra. When
users from the Windows domain access the Celerra the mapping method correlates the stand-alone CIFS
server SID with the Windows user SIDs.
Answer:B

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NO.3 The storage administrator would like to know if more AV servers are necessary for optimal
performance and protection.
Which tool can the system administrator use to analyze current utilization of the antivirus environment?
A.CAVA Calculator
B.NAS Support Matrix
C.CAVA Sizing Tool
D.Celerra Monitor
Answer:C

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NO.4 A Celerra file system has a SnapSure schedule enabled for daily checkpoints. By using the Microsoft
Shadow Copy Client, a user can see previous versions of a certain file up to a certain date in the past, but
nothing else after that.
What could be the cause of this issue?
A.Checkpoints are currently being used by an application.
B.All of the checkpoints have been refreshed.
C.There have been no changes to the file.
D.The SavVol has reached a full state.
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which component of SnapSure identifies changed data blocks in the production file system?
A.Bitmap
B.Blockmap
C.Superblock
D.Inode
Answer:A

EMC   E20-361   E20-361

NO.6 An administrator wants to present several CIFS shares to users through one file server. The shares are
stored on many physical machines. What can be used with the Celerra to achieve this goal?
A.Celerra global CIFS server
B.Default CIFS server
C.Distributed File System
D.Virtual Data Mover
Answer:C

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NO.7 ile systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs
D.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
Answer:B

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NO.8 How is Kerberos used within the Active Directory?
A.For user authentication
B.Provides encryption of stored user passwords
C.For time synchronization
D.Provides Dynamic DNS updates
Answer:A

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NO.9 What is the default result of joining a CIFS server to a Windows Active Directory domain?
A.The CIFS server shares are dynamically updated in DNS.
B.The CIFS server interface is dynamically assigned from Active Directory.
C.The "EMC Celerra" container is created in Active Directory.
D.The CIFS server is added to the Active Directory Computers container.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which Celerra feature stores Windows SIDs correlated to UIDs and GIDs?
A.ntxmap
B.NASDB
C.secmap
D.SavVol
Answer:C

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NO.11 You have decided to use the Automatic SavVol Extension. For a Celerra of 200 GB a SavVol with 20
GB is created.
What is the size of the next Automatic SavVol Extension when HWM is reached?
A.20 GB
B.20 MB
C.64 MB
D.64 GB
Answer:A

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NO.12 You are implementing a CIFS solution and will possibly be using Virtual Data Movers. Which CIFS
dynamic configuration information is contained within the Virtual Data Mover?
A.Virus checker configuration
B.CIFS startup configuration
C.DFS root ID information
D.Share information
Answer:D

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NO.13 How does the Control Station access disk partitions on the back-end storage?
A.FC
B.NBS
C.iFCP
D.iSCSI
Answer:B

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NO.14 File systems created for iSCSI LUNs should be large enough to accommodate which objects?
A.iSCSI LUNs and NFS
B.iSCSI LUNs and snaps
C.iSCSI LUNs and CIFS
D.iSCSI LUNs
Answer:B

EMC   E20-361   E20-361   E20-361   E20-361

NO.15 You just created a new file system and exported it as an NFS export. You are informed that someone
deleted the .etc configuration directory.
What would be the best way to prevent this in the future?
A.Remove write permission on the .etc directory.
B.Export a subdirectory of the root file system.
C.Educate users about deleting system directories.
D.Set the hidden attribute on the root directory.
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which statement describes Celerra gateway Fibre Channel connectivity between the blades and the
back-end storage?
A.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct connection.
B.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via direct
C.Symmetrix back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
D.CLARiiON back-end storage can only be connected to blades via switched fabric.
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which describes how a Usermapper client resolves a Windows SID to UNIX UID/GID?
A.Uses the resolution order defined in the Data Mover nsswitch.conf file
B.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for secmap cache on server_2
C.Uses the ntxmap.conf file first, then the Data Mover secmap cache
D.Broadcasts over the internal Celerra network for a primary or secondary Usermapper service
Answer:D

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NO.18 You have moved a VDM from one Data Mover to another. Now the users cannot access the data. What
could cause this condition?
A.Interface names are different to the source VDM.
B.The IP address on the target Data Mover is set before the move.
C.Target Data Mover sees all file systems of the source VDM.
D.You keep the same IP addresses.
Answer:A

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NO.19 What application provides integration between the Celerra and the iSCSI host for replicating an iSCSI
LUN?
A.Replication Manager
B.Unisphere Manager
C.Navisphere Manager
D.Celerra Manager
Answer:D

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NO.20 A user needs to test new software with existing data stored on a Celerra file system that has
checkpoints. The Celerra administrator is asked to mount a SnapSure checkpoint from the file system to a
different Data Mover.
Can the administrator fulfill this request? Why or why not?
A.Yes, but only if the checkpoint is mounted read-only
B.Yes, but the checkpoint cannot be restored to the PFS
C.No, because the checkpoint relies on the PFS
D.No, because a writeable snap is required for testing
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

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NO.1 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

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NO.4 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.5 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

EMC   E20-520   E20-520

NO.7 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.8 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.9 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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NO.10 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.12 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

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NO.13 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.14 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.15 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.16 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

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NO.17 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

EMC   E20-520   E20-520   E20-520

NO.18 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

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NO.19 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

certification EMC   E20-520 examen   E20-520

NO.20 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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Code d'Examen: E20-517
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the status of the R1 and R2 devices after performing an SRDF split operation?
A. R1 and R2 Not Ready
B. R1 Write Disabled; R2 Read/Write
C. R1 Read/Write; R2 Read/Write
D. R1 Read/Write; R2 Write Disabled
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need to perform an SRDF fallback operation and must ensure the integrity of the data on the R2
volume which step must be taken.?
A. Suspend the RDF link
B. Unmount the tile system
C. Remove entries horn the file system table
D. Disable journaling on the file system
Answer: D

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NO.3 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host
Answer: B

EMC   E20-517   E20-517

NO.4 A storage administrator wants to map some Symmetrix devices to an FA port for use by the Sales group
and finds that someone placed reservations on the devices for a project that no longer needs them. What
should theStorage administrator does to use those devices?
A. Use the password that was used at the time of creation to release the reservations
B. Use symconfigure to release the reservation
C. Map the devices from a host that has Symmetrix Access Control administrator privileges.
D. Use symconfigure with the force option to map the devices
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-517   E20-517   E20-517

NO.5 When a TimeFinder/Snap session is terminated, what happens to the allocated space on the save
devices?
A. Data on the save devices is maintained for the target host.
B. Tracks on the save devices are reclaimed.
C. Tracks on the save devices are replicated to snap target devices.
D. Data on the save devices is maintained for the source host.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-591
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery Solutions Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Avamar node is dedicated to providing internal Avamar server processes and services?
A. Spare
B. Storage
C. Utility
D. Accelerator
Answer: C

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NO.2 An EMC customer has an EMC NetWorker server running on a Microsoft Windows host and
two storage nodes running on Solaris hosts. Data Protection Advisor (DPA) will be installed on a
separate Windows host. The customer requires that system performance information be collected
from the backup server and all storage nodes.
A Collector will be installed on the DPA server by default. At a minimum, how many additional
Collectors need to be deployed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

EMC   certification E20-591   E20-591 examen   E20-591   E20-591

NO.3 You are asked to propose a serverless backup solution for the following environment:
Which EMC product would you recommend to support this environment?
A. RecoverPoint
B. Avamar
C. Data Domain
D. NetWorker
Answer: C

EMC   E20-591 examen   E20-591   E20-591   E20-591

NO.4 An Avamar customer has just deployed a VMware environment. The customer wants to
ensure they receive the highest level of deduplication within the environment. Which type of
backup should be performed?
A. Guest
B. VCB proxy host
C. VADP
D. ESX console
Answer: B

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NO.5 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to start performing client backups to a deduplication
node. What is a requirement when scheduling these backups using NetWorker?
A. First backup must be a full backup
B. Database backups must be full backups
C. All backups must be full backups
D. Schedule must not include any incremental backups
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer needs to improve the RTO for all backups retained onsite. Most
of the backup jobs consist of images and other scientific data. The customer requires daily tape out
for long-term offsite retention. Which product addresses these challenges?
A. EMC Disk Library
B. NetWorker deduplication node
C. Avamar
D. Data Domain
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-591   E20-591   E20-591

NO.7 The backup window of a customer using tape as a target for the current backup solution has
increased over the allowed time. The customer needs to reduce the backup window by adding an
intermediary process to a faster device before going to tape. What is that process?
A. Archiving
B. Rotation
C. Consolidation
D. Staging
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-591   E20-591   E20-591

NO.8 Which EMC NetWorker feature is used to perform a backup based on an event?
A. Application modules
B. Directives
C. Scheduled backups
D. Probe-based backups
Answer: D

EMC examen   E20-591   E20-591   E20-591   E20-591   certification E20-591

NO.9 Which technology is used in an EMC Disk Library to provide tolerance against a double drive
failure?
A. RAIN
B. RAID 6
C. Remote Copy
D. Active Engine Failover
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator wants to back up an EMC Celerra with Avamar using a single NDMP
accelerator node. Based on EMC best practices, what is the maximum number of files that can be
backed up per backup job?
A. 5 million
B. 10 million
C. 15 million
D. 20 million
Answer: B

EMC   E20-591 examen   E20-591 examen

NO.11 Where is deduplicated data stored on a Data Domain system?
A. SATA drives
B. NVRAM
C. SCSI drives
D. PATA drives
Answer: A

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NO.12 An EMC NetWorker customer has added the following application to their environment:
What is a requirement to perform serverless backups?
A. NetWorker storage node software needs to be installed on the Exchange server
B. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications needs to be installed on the proxy server
C. NetWorker Module for Exchange and NetWorker VSS Client for Microsoft Windows
D. NetWorker Module for Exchange needs to be installed on the NetWorker server
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-816
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Symmetrix Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 156 Q&As

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NO.1 A company has a Symmetrix V-Max array in an open systems environment. They want to use
TimeFinder/Snap to create a single copy per day of a production environment containing 200 volumes of
8 GB each. Twenty-five percent of the total I/O in the application is write activity.
What is the amount of physical storage required for all VDEVs?
A. 50 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 0 GB
Answer: D

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NO.2 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes. The snap would be kept for 8 hours. How should the Change Tracker data
collection be set up to model the solution?
A. Sum report with a reset of 4 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer's application is stored on a DMX-4. The application runs 24x7x365. They would like to send
consistent replicas of this data simultaneously to four branch offices on a nightly basis. The branch offices
have CLARiiON arrays.
Which solution would you recommend?
A. Use TimeFinder/Mirror to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data from the BCVs to the remote offices.
B. Use Open Replicator cold push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
C. Use Open Replicator hot push to replicate the data to the remote offices.
D. Use TimeFinder/Snap to create a consistent replica of the production application. Then use Open
Replicator cold push to replicate the data on the VDEVs to the remote offices.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-816   E20-816

NO.4 A customer is running SRDF/A single session mode. They want to change into SRDF/S mode after
nightly periods of high write activity have completed. The switch to synchronous mode failed.
What is a potential cause for this failure?
A. SRDF/S cycle switching feature is not enabled.
B. Mode change feature is only supported with Concurrent SRDF.
C. SDRF/A write cache is not enabled at the remote site.
D. Fifty percent or more of SRDF/A write cache is in use on the target Symmetrix.
Answer: D

EMC   E20-816   E20-816

NO.5 The customer has a DMX-4 replicating to another DMX-4 (microcode level 5773 for both) over an
SRDF/S session between two sites 20 km apart and wants to understand the limitation (if any) of using
the Single Round Trip (SiRT) feature on RF directors. What is the applicable limitation of the setup?
A. SiRT only works for an I/O size of less than 32 KB.
B. SiRT is enabled for all block sizes.
C. SiRT would not work because the distance is greater than 12 km.
D. SiRT only works for SRDF/A.
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-816 examen   E20-816

NO.6 A customer is implementing a new SRDF/S environment with DMX arrays. The primary and secondary
data centers are 20 kilometers apart.
Which consideration is needed for planning, designing, and implementing a synchronous solution?
A. Ensure that the application can tolerate the additional latency
B. Ensure that adequate cache on the arrays is allocated
C. Ensure that the RAID configuration is identical on both arrays
D. Ensure that there is twice the recommended amount of bandwidth
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer has a single V-Max and you are helping to design a new SRDF solution. This customer
wants to replicate all its data with SRDF over a Gigabit Ethernet.
In order to get the maximum benefit from scaling, what is the most important consideration?
A. All GigE ports on the source should be able to see all GigE ports on the target array
B. Ports must have auto-negotiation off because we don't support Jumbo Frames
C. Speed limit value in the Symmetrix configuration file (not persistent)
D. Speed limits can be set on GigE ports from 100 to 10000 Mb (megabits)
Answer: A

EMC   E20-816   certification E20-816

NO.8 A customer is planning to implement SRDF/S into their environment. The customer wants zero data
loss if they lose their primary data center (R1). The distance is 1,000 miles, and the customer would like to
maintain an application response time of 10 ms.
Which design would you implement?
A. SRDF/AR single-hop
B. SRDF/AR multi-hop
C. SRDF/DM
D. SRDF/S with adaptive copy initially
Answer: B

EMC examen   E20-816   E20-816 examen

NO.9 What are the key differences between SIRT in 5772 and SIRT in Symmetrix V-Max with 5874?
A. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT > 115 microsec
B. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 64 KB or RTT threshold > 520 microsec
C. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for all write sizes or if RTT < 115 microsec
D. SIRT in 5874 is enabled for write sizes up to 128 KB or if RTT < 115 microsec
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer is migrating their Windows 2008 servers from HP storage to EMC V-Max storage.
Host-based performance metrics need to be used to design a configuration. EMC recommends the
diskperf -Y command to enable I/O statics in every server.
Why is enabling disk statistics collection recommended?
A. It improves performance of the servers
B. Otherwise, a reboot will be required to activate
C. Otherwise, you must start Performance Monitor
D. Because Windows 2008 leaves the default value to off
Answer: B

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NO.11 The customer wants a TimeFinder/Snap solution to create a point in time prior to modifying the source
data for testing purposes with a 16-hour RPO.
How should the Change Tracker data collection be set up to model the solution.?
A. Delta report with a reset of 8 hours
B. Delta report with a reset of 16 hours
C. Delta report with a reset of 4 hours
D. Sum report with a reset of 8 hours
Answer: B

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NO.12 Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
SRDF/S over Fibre Channel has been configured between two V-Max arrays that are 50 kilometers apart.
What is the expected write response time delay due to latency?
A. 0.25 ms
B. 0.5 ms
C. 1 ms
D. 2 ms
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-816   E20-816 examen   E20-816   E20-816

NO.13 A customer wants to migrate from DMX-3 with 5772 to DMX-4 with 5773 code. They are using
TimeFinder/Clone every night for backup processing with synchronous COFW. TimeFinder/Clone with
5773 allows them to use a new feature called asynchronous COFW.
How many back-end operations does TimeFinder/Clone make with Enginuity 5773 using Aynchronous
COFW compared with TimeFinder/Clone with Enginuity 5772?
A. Back-end operations are lower with 5773 Enginuity.
B. Back-end operations are the same in both Enginuity versions.
C. Back-end operations are higher with 5773 Enginuity.
D. Depends on disk speed and RAID protection.
Answer: B

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NO.14 The customer wants to replace the three DMX 2000s with a single Symmetrix V-Max using Open
Replicator hot pull for the move. What sequence of steps should be taken to get ready for the copy
sessions?
LUN Masking of DMX 2000 remote volumes to the V-Max FA ports.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via the same fabric or SAN extension.
FA ports of V-Max are zoned to FA ports of the three DMX 2000s.
V-Max and DMX 2000 arrays are reachable via point-to-point or FC-AL.
LUN Masking of the V-Max control volumes to the DMX 2000 FA ports.
All V-Max FAs have access to the DMX 2000 volumes being migrated.
A. 4,6,1,3
B. 4,3,5,6
C. 2,3,1,6
D. 2,3,5,6
Answer: C

EMC   E20-816 examen   certification E20-816

NO.15 An Open Replicator data migration from a HDS to Symmetrix array is being proposed. The customer
has the following requirements: Application downtime should be minimal and Open Replicator session
failure must not result in data loss
Which solution will meet the customer's requirements?
A. Cold pull with precopy
B. Cold pull with donor update
C. Hot pull with donor update
D. Hot pull with precopy
Answer: C

EMC   E20-816   E20-816   E20-816   certification E20-816

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Code d'Examen: E22-290
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Data Domain Deduplication, Backup and Recovery Exam)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 Why would you increase the MTU size on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Maximize performance when using 10Gb Ethernet
B.Support Ethernet frames smaller than 1500 bytes
C.Support 1 Gb/s Ethernet frames
D.Maxi mize performance when using 100 Mb/s Fast Ethernet
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which EMC Data Domain technology allows inline deduplication toccur fast and efficientty?
A.SISL scaling architecture
B.Data Domain Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.DDBoost
D.SATA
Answer: A

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NO.3 When using link aggregation across Ethernet ports on an EMC Data Domain system.which OSllayers
provide load balancing by use of the IP layer?
A.1 and3
B.1 and4
C.2and3
D.3and4
Answer: D

EMC examen   certification E22-290   E22-290   certification E22-290

NO.4 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system over CIFS using Symantec NetBackup.How
would the Data Domain system be configured on the backup server?
A.adv_file device
B.Jukebox
C.Storage unit
D.Backup-to-diskfolder
Answer: C

certification EMC   E22-290 examen   E22-290

NO.5 A customer has an IBM Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) environment with multiple EMC Data Domain
systems.Backups are stored on Data Domain system A and replicated to Data Domain system B.The
Tape Library contains a copy pool
Based on the exhibit, how many copies of the data must the TSM server database track at the primary
site?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

EMC examen   E22-290   E22-290   E22-290

NO.6 A customer has enabled CIFS and configured the CIFS shares on an EMC Data Domain system to
allow access through a Symantec NetBackup Media Server.What is a step that must be done on the
Media Server tenable read/write access tthe shared directory and configure the devices?
A.Configure a NetBackup disk pool to be used by the NetBackup devices
B.Enable the DD Boost plugin on the NetBackup Media Server
C.Create a mapped network drive that reconnects when the NetBackup service is started
D.Confi gure the NetBackup servi ces tstart as a user that has access tthe share
Answer: D

EMC   E22-290   E22-290   certification E22-290

NO.7 What is a benefit of snapshots on an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Requires ndisk space to store
B.Provides NDMP backups ta remote site
C.Included with the replication license
D.Provides data restoration from a specific point in time for deleted data
Answer: D

EMC   E22-290   E22-290 examen   E22-290   E22-290

NO.8 What does the term "compression factor" refer tin the exhibit?
A.Aggregate data reduction ratio
B.Data sent tthe EMC Data Domain system
C.Space used after compression
D.Total available space remaining
Answer: A

EMC   E22-290   E22-290 examen

NO.9 An organization currentvwites backups tan EMC Data Domain system and then creates encrypted
copies of their backups on tapes.These tapes are then shipped ta thi rd-party offsite vault
They are now planning tdeploy a second Data Domain system to a secure data center at their corporate
headquarters as a replication target treplace the use of the offsite tapes The twsites are connected
through the Internet
Where should encryption be applied on the Data Domain systems tensure a similar level of data security
as achieved by their current process?
A.Encrypt the data at rest
B.Encrypt the replication context
C.Encrypt the data at rest and the replication context
D.Encryption is not required
Answer: B

EMC   certification E22-290   certification E22-290

NO.10 An EMC Data Domain customer has setup a DVTL for their backup software.They created slots, drives,
and tapes.The backup software shows the tape drives and the robot, but not the tapes
Which step was missed on the Data Domain system?
A.Tape labels are not defined
B.Configure Fibre Channel LUN masking
C.Incorrect media type is defined
D.Import the virtuel tapes in the VTL
Answer: D

EMC examen   E22-290   E22-290

NO.11 A customer is attempting tcreate a read-only copy of their backup data on an EMC Data Domain system
tachieve additional protection.Which Data Domain system feature would accomplish this requirement?
A.Snapshot
B.Data Invulnerability Architecture
C.Fastcopy
D.Retention Lock
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is currently using an EMC Data Domain system with VTL configured over Fibre
Channel.They have a requirement tarchive to tape Which process is used to transport data to tape?
A.Use the tape export function on the Data Domain system
B.Use the backup software to move backup data to tape
C.Use the Enterprise Manager on the Data Domain system
D.Use the VTL intertace to eject tapes to ptrysical tapes
Answer: B

EMC examen   E22-290 examen   E22-290   E22-290   E22-290

NO.13 A customer has a backup environment with an EMC Data Domain system usinq DD Boost as Illustrated In
the exhibit.Distributed Segment Processing IS enabled
Which component segments the data in the deduplication process?
A.LAN Clients
B.Backup Server
C.Data Domain system A
D.Data Domain system B
Answer: B

EMC examen   E22-290   E22-290   E22-290 examen

NO.14 What is the default behavior for messages log files in an EMC Data Domain system?
A.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
B.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is deleted
C.Every Sunday at 03:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
D.Every day at 06:00 a new log file is opened and the previous log file is renamed
Answer: C

EMC   E22-290   certification E22-290   E22-290

NO.15 A customer is implementing an EMC Data Domain system in their EMC NetWorker environment using
CIFS as illustrated in the exhibit A CIFS share named "bkp001" has been created on the Data Domain
system
How should the backup device be configured in NetWorker?
A.rd=sn_A\\dd01\bkp001
B.\\dd01\bkp001
C.rd=ddOl/bkp001
D.rd=server_A\\dd01\bkp001
Answer: A

certification EMC   certification E22-290   certification E22-290   E22-290 examen

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