EMC E20-918 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-918
Nom d'Examen: EMC (IT-as-a-Service Expert Exam for Cloud Architects)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 The first phase of new ITaaS service introduces the offering to 10% of the engineering organization. The
IT organization leverages the management tools used in their traditional data center processes to provide
visibility into silos and control of the infrastructure. They also have adapted some ITSM concepts as a
framework for their management practices.
During the initial phase of the service deployment, a problem was encountered in one of the VMs.
The IT organization is concerned about the extensive amount of time and resources spent determining
the cause of the issue.
What is the most likely reason it takes more time than expected to resolve the problem?
A. The legacy management tools do not have the capability to provide a holistic view of the service
instance
B. The expertise of the service desk personnel is inadequate to properly handle service related issues
C. The complex nature of orchestration and automation makes problem identification and root cause
analysis unlikely.
D. The cultural hurdles that span organizational silos have not been addressed and resolved.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company is deploying a major new business application. The company has difficulty managing the
software development lifecycle. As a result, the time from generating requirements to operational delivery
is significant.
Which best addresses the company s need for shorter release cycles and better code quality?
A. Implement common collaboration tools
B. Utilize configuration management methodologies
C. Use of common automation and orchestration processes
D. Transition to a DevOps culture
Answer: D

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NO.3 A large enterprise has several applications deployed in a hybrid cloud. Ever since the hybrid cloud was
deployed, the enterprise network operations center has never been able to fully reconcile network and
audit logs.
What should be investigated first as the possible source of the issue?
A. Confirm time is synchronized between locations
B. Filtering false positives
C. Exposing management APIs
D. Tenant in-control versus provider in-control differences
Answer: A

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NO.4 An IT organization is currently 80% virtualized and the CIO is planning for the transition to ITaaS.
Senior executives are concerned that IT supports too many services and that many of the services are
neither efficient nor necessary.
What argument can the CIO make to address the executives' concerns and convince them that ITaaS is
the correct strategic decision?
A. ITaaS promotes the rationalization of services currently being offered by IT and offers the services that
provide business value through the service catalog.
B. A CMDB can be utilized during the instantiation of the services to improve service levels for the
consumers of IT services.
C. ITaaS offers an opportunity to evaluate whether certain IT services should be sourced with a public
cloud service provider.
D. ITaaS promotes the concept of on-demand self-service, allowing consumers to use only the services
from which they can derive business value.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A large service provider is designing a solution to protect itself against malicious content, such as
viruses in a SOAP attachment, and denial of service attacks.
Which type of firewall is most appropriate for their needs?
A. Linked VPNs
B. Federated
C. Reverse proxy servers
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.6 The IT group within a manufacturing organization is transforming their manual service offerings into
automated service offerings to be available from a service catalog. After reviewing the required KPIs for
the service, the service transition project manager asks you if the monitoring tools they currently employ
need to be replaced.
What criteria are needed to effectively monitor the required KPIs?
A. Can they measure, gather, analyze, and present the required metrics?
B. Can they control, automate, monitor and manage all elements of the service?
C. Can they provide end-to-end support of the services?
D. Can they integrate with the orchestration engine to provide automation?
Answer: A

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NO.7 An enterprise company has a large, virtualized data center. They are currently in the process of auditing
their virtual servers to ensure they are in compliance with regulatory requirements.
They want to be able to check new and existing virtual servers for compliance and automatically
remediate any virtual machines that are found to be out of compliance.
As a Cloud Architect, which product would you recommend for this purpose?
A. Cisco Intelligent Automation for Cloud (CIAC)
B. VMware vCenter Orchestrator
C. VMware vCenter Configuration Manager
D. RSA Archer eGRC Platform
Answer: C

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NO.8 An enterprise decided to place some sensitive data in the public cloud and implemented security
mechanisms to protect this data.
Recently the public cloud provider's systems had a security breach. The enterprise was not concerned
because they felt their data had been completely protected. All of the services housing the data are
protected by an IPS application and no alerts were generated by the system.
How did the enterprise protect its data?
A. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. The encryption
keys were under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
B. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest and in-transit. Copies of the
encryption keys were secured by the public cloud provider in case they were lost.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were neither accessed nor copied.
C. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted in-transit only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
D. All data in the public cloud environment was encrypted at-rest only. The encryption keys were
under complete control of the enterprise and were not available to the public provider.
The cloud provider's logs showed that the enterprise's services were copied.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A manufacturing company hired you to help them in their journey to a hybrid cloud. You conduct an
assessment and recommend migrating several existing Tier 2 applications to a public cloud provider. You
must work within the following constraints:
-Migration can be performed only during weekends -Only limited downtime is acceptable -The
configuration of the host and applications cannot be changed -The company needs to keep the costs as
low as possible -Although there are no specific performance requirements, they are concerned about the
quality
of the user experience
Which solution best addresses these needs?
A. Layer 2 extension with VPN connection over Internet with WAN optimization
B. Layer 3 connection over Internet with QoS
C. Layer 3 connection over Internet with WAN optimization
D. Layer 2 extension with dedicated link and WAN optimization
Answer: A

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NO.10 The marketing line of business of an enterprise has deployed web services within a private cloud. They
wish to provide additional web services elastically and distribute them around the globe using a public
cloud provider.
The web services have a loosely coupled design and have no content dependencies on any resources in
the private cloud. They are created from a standard PaaS template, which includes an intrusion
prevention system that periodically polls a central management server for security updates. The IPS
management server is located within the private cloud. No layer 2 connectivity exists between the private
and public clouds. The consumers of these web services are distributed across the globe.
Which solution would you recommend to best support the web service elasticity and to minimize service
network latency for the consumer?
A. Implement an encrypted VPN tunnel between the private and public clouds.
B. Implement a global load balancing service as a front-end for the web services.
C. Increase bandwidth between the private cloud and the Internet.
D. Deploy a central database server to consolidate web service content.
Answer: B

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NO.11 An organization wishes to move toward full ITaaS implementation. Their IT team is skilled, disciplined,
and exhibits strong teamwork. They have demonstrated the ability to deliver services with supporting
processes and regulations.
As their ITaaS consultant, you need to take them to the next level in the service orientation maturity model.
What is the next level?
A. Service Aligned
B. Service Aware
C. Service Capable
D. Service Neutral
Answer: A

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NO.12 A hosting company has experienced a sudden increase in customer interest and wishes to implement
ITaaS. They are now hosting online shopping applications for several retail computer and electronics
companies.
Developers in the customer companies use their own internal credentials and have the ability to publish
applications and changes to their stores. Shoppers access these stores using a variety of mobile
applications and web browsers.
What should be addressed when migrating to ITaaS and implementing a service catalog for the retail and
electronic companies?
A. Integration with different authentication systems
B. Support for several different CMDB systems
C. Integration of multiple hypervisors
D. On-demand resource pool creation
Answer: A

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NO.13 A financial company has made several acquisitions within the past few years. They currently have two
primary data centers that are 50 km apart. Recently, an internal assessment was conducted to explore
ways to improve ingress/egress utilization and to extend their firewall to the cloud.
Which type of firewall would best suit their needs?
A. Reverse proxy servers
B. Federated
C. Load balanced reverse proxy servers
D. Linked VPN
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which metric measures the time taken to realize benefits from an ITaaS solution?
A. Time-to-value
B. Time-to-live
C. Time-to-deliver
D. Time-to-deploy
Answer: A

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NO.15 An enterprise has decided to implement a new service that will process credit card information. They
will deploy this service within their private cloud. They have a relationship with a public cloud provider that
claims to be PCI compliant.
The enterprise wishes to implement a service that is PCI compliant with the least amount of effort. The
service is protected by a policy-based intrusion detection system. Cardholder data is securely transmitted
to the web interface.
Which additional design elements would best be suited for this implementation?
A. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. No credit card information is stored within the application.
B. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted, stored, and securely sent
directly to the credit card processing system. Credit card information is stored within the public cloud
provider using AES 128 encryption.
C. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent directly to
the credit card processing system. Credit card information is backed up to the private cloud system and
stored using AES 128 encryption.
D. The card number is masked as it is typed and is immediately encrypted and securely sent to both the
credit card processing system and to private cloud for historical tracking and reporting only.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-554
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Isilon Design Specialist Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 81 Q&As

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NO.1 You have had several discussions with your customer in the processor design industry. They
have stated that they want a Scale-Out NAS platform for their design environment. Their most
significant responses were "We have 125 design engineers accessing large diagrams and we need
high throughput to support them. Can we also get the highest performance available? We need to
stay ahead of our competitors." Other areas you discussed were their data retention policies and
workflow after the chip design is completed. They plan to archive the design files but the files must
stay on line.
What is your initial node recommendation?
A. A-Series nodes for the active diagrams and X-Series nodes for the archives.
B. S-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL Series nodes for the archives
C. X-Series nodes for the active diagrams and NL 400 nodes for the archives
D. X-Series nodes with SSD for the active diagrams and NL nodes for the archives
Answer: B

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NO.2 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What applications access this storage?
B. What type of racks are in your datacenter?
C. Are you using a KVM to access your storage?
D. How many NICs do your clients have?
Answer: A

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NO.3 When conducting high-level interviews with stakeholders of a project, what are the key
questions that should be asked?
A.How much usable storage are you looking for? What client OS will access this storage? Which
applications will access this storage?
B.Which backup application is in use today?
What is your change rate?
How many clients will connect to the cluster?
C.What does your network architecture look like?
Do you have existing NAS infrastructure?
Do you have 10Gb or 1Gb ethernet?
Which applications will access this storage?
D.Who are the application owners?
How much usable storage is needed?
What applications will be accessing the storage?
How many users are in your Active Directory?
Answer: A

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NO.4 What key considerations should be kept in mind when designing a 300TB solution?
A.Workflow management Defining class of service Time of day services RPO and RTO Data retention
and backup
B.Defining class of service Time of day services ROI and TCO Data retention and backup
C.SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots Space for snapshots
D.Always include 2% SSD SmartPools Smartconnect Snapshots InsightIQ
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are reviewing an opportunity with a trusted advisor. You both discover gaps in the initial
solution design.
Each iterative discussion with the customer helps you define the solution better. The documents
produced capture the customer's requirements.
What else needs to occur to refine the sizing considerations?
A. Complete your Solution Design Document and forward to EMC consulting.
B. Validate the Workflow Profile Assessment and test the solution against your findings.
C. Review you assumptions and ask the customer what business issue you're solving.
D. Provide the CIO with the findings and gain commitment to a Proof of Concept.
Answer: B

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NO.6 You set up a meeting to gather information on a new project with the IT manager and plan to
use a workflow profile assessment (WPA) to document the requirements.
Why is it recommended to talk to as many stakeholders as possible?
A. Completing this document gives sales a list of who the stakeholders are at customer site.
B. Helps downstream personnel, such as implementation and delivery, to have a clearer
understanding of the requirements.
C. Using workflow profile enables sales to take this information to EMC consulting for review to
validate the configuration.
D. Using the WPA tool will give you the best "big picture" to see things such as block size, de-dupe,
file size and volumes.
Answer: B

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NO.7 When designing Isilon solutions, which issue should you pay special attention to?
A. Create a workflow document
B. Conduct stakeholder interviews
C. Follow all SSD sizing rules
D. Meet customer expectations
Answer: D

EMC   E20-554   E20-554

NO.8 Your customer purchased an Isilon cluster with eight X400 nodes for Home Directories. Your
follow-up discussions have uncovered an opportunity to expand the cluster to support the Legal
Department. As you prepare to complete the Workflow Profile Document, you meet with the
customer to discuss data protection.
Which key areas should you address?
A.Default cluster protection level Additional directory level protections Snapshots and replication
B.WORM requirements Network ports for replication Snapshots for user restores
C.Default cluster protection level Backup windows and processes Concurrency of user access
D.Protocols (SMB, NFS, FTP , HTTP , HDFS) Authentication and Directory Services Performance and
latency concerns
Answer: A

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NO.9 When designing Isilon solutions, what issues should you pay special attention to?
A.Avoid being too enthusiastic over the technology Balance technical and business requirements
Provide options Design to meet customer expectations
B.Workflow Document Solutions Document Application types Data strategy
C.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Provide options Practical vs.
theoretical implementations
D.Solutions Document Balance technical and business requirements Downstream hand-off Design
to meet customer expectations
Answer: A

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NO.10 You meet a customer for the first time. They explain that their current environment for NAS
does not meet their needs. You want to make sure that Isilon is a good fit for their needs.
What would be a good prequalifying question to ask?
A. What application are you using to create directories?
B. Is your datacenter ISO9001 compliant?
C. What protocols are accessing your NAS?
D. How many users are in your Directory Services?
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 312-50
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacker Certified)
Questions et réponses: 765 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the essential difference between an 'Ethical Hacker' and a 'Cracker'?
A. The ethical hacker does not use the same techniques or skills as a cracker.
B. The ethical hacker does it strictly for financial motives unlike a cracker.
C. The ethical hacker has authorization from the owner of the target.
D. The ethical hacker is just a cracker who is getting paid.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your Certkiller trainee Sandra asks you which are the four existing Regional
Internet Registry (RIR's)?
A. APNIC, PICNIC, ARIN, LACNIC
B. RIPE NCC, LACNIC, ARIN, APNIC
C. RIPE NCC, NANIC, ARIN, APNIC
D. RIPE NCC, ARIN, APNIC, LATNIC
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are footprinting an organization to gather competitive intelligence. You visit
the company's website for contact information and telephone numbers but do not
find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on their
website 12 months ago but not it is not there.
How would it be possible for you to retrieve information from the website that is
outdated?
A. Visit google's search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org web site to retrieve the Internet archive of the company's website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You receive an email with the following message:
Hello Steve,
We are having technical difficulty in restoring user database record after the recent
blackout. Your account data is corrupted. Please logon to the SuperEmailServices.com
and change your password.
http://www.supermailservices.com@0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef/support/logon.htm
If you do not reset your password within 7 days, your account will be permanently
disabled locking you out from our e-mail services.
Sincerely,
Technical Support
SuperEmailServices
From this e-mail you suspect that this message was sent by some hacker since you
have been using their e-mail services for the last 2 years and they have never sent
out an e-mail such as this. You also observe the URL in the message and confirm
your suspicion about 0xde.0xad.0xbde.0xef which looks like hexadecimal numbers.
You immediately enter the following at Windows 2000 command prompt:
Ping0xde.0xad.0xbe.0xef
You get a response with a valid IP address.
What is the obstructed IP address in the e-mail URL?
A. 222.173.190.239
B. 233.34.45.64
C. 54.23.56.55
D. 199.223.23.45
Answer: A

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50 examen

NO.5 User which Federal Statutes does FBI investigate for computer crimes involving
e-mail scams and mail fraud?
A. 18 U.S.C 1029 Possession of Access Devices
B. 18 U.S.C 1030 Fraud and related activity in connection with computers
C. 18 U.S.C 1343 Fraud by wire, radio or television
D. 18 U.S.C 1361 Injury to Government Property
E. 18 U.S.C 1362 Government communication systems
F. 18 U.S.C 1831 Economic Espionage Act
G. 18 U.S.C 1832 Trade Secrets Act
Answer: B

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-50   certification 312-50

NO.6 What is "Hacktivism"?
A. Hacking for a cause
B. Hacking ruthlessly
C. An association which groups activists
D. None of the above
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   certification 312-50   312-50

NO.7 What does the term "Ethical Hacking" mean?
A. Someone who is hacking for ethical reasons.
B. Someone who is using his/her skills for ethical reasons.
C. Someone who is using his/her skills for defensive purposes.
D. Someone who is using his/her skills for offensive purposes.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   312-50 examen   312-50   312-50   312-50

NO.8 Which one of the following is defined as the process of distributing incorrect
Internet Protocol (IP) addresses/names with the intent of diverting traffic?
A. Network aliasing
B. Domain Name Server (DNS) poisoning
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
D. Port scanning
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50   312-50 examen

NO.9 A Certkiller security System Administrator is reviewing the network system log files.
He notes the following:
- Network log files are at 5 MB at 12:00 noon.
-At 14:00 hours, the log files at 3 MB.
What should he assume has happened and what should he do about the situation?
A. He should contact the attacker's ISP as soon as possible and have the connection
disconnected.
B. He should log the event as suspicious activity, continue to investigate, and take further
steps according to site security policy.
C. He should log the file size, and archive the information, because the router crashed.
D. He should run a file system check, because the Syslog server has a self correcting file
system problem.
E. He should disconnect from the Internet discontinue any further unauthorized use,
because an attack has taken place.
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-50   312-50 examen   312-50   312-50

NO.10 How does Traceroute map the route that a packet travels from point A to point B?
A. It uses a TCP Timestamp packet that will elicit a time exceed in transit message.
B. It uses a protocol that will be rejected at the gateways on its way to its destination.
C. It manipulates the value of time to live (TTL) parameter packet to elicit a time
exceeded in transit message.
D. It manipulated flags within packets to force gateways into generating error messages.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-50   312-50 examen   312-50

NO.11 Which of the following tools are used for footprinting?(Choose four.
A. Sam Spade
B. NSLookup
C. Traceroute
D. Neotrace
E. Cheops
Answer: A, B, C, D

certification EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50 examen   312-50 examen   312-50

NO.12 What are the two basic types of attacks?(Choose two.
A. DoS
B. Passive
C. Sniffing
D. Active
E. Cracking
Answer: B, D

EC-COUNCIL   312-50 examen   312-50

NO.13 According to the CEH methodology, what is the next step to be performed after
footprinting?
A. Enumeration
B. Scanning
C. System Hacking
D. Social Engineering
E. Expanding Influence
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-50   312-50   312-50

NO.14 You are footprinting Acme.com to gather competitive intelligence. You visit the
acme.com websire for contact information and telephone number numbers but do
not find it listed there. You know that they had the entire staff directory listed on
their website 12 months ago but now it is not there. How would it be possible for you
to retrieve information from the website that is outdated?
A. Visit google search engine and view the cached copy.
B. Visit Archive.org site to retrieve the Internet archive of the acme website.
C. Crawl the entire website and store them into your computer.
D. Visit the company's partners and customers website for this information.
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50 examen   312-50 examen

NO.15 Snort has been used to capture packets on the network. On studying the packets, the
penetration tester finds it to be abnormal. If you were the penetration tester, why
would you find this abnormal?
(Note: The student is being tested on concept learnt during passive OS
fingerprinting, basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet
signatures from a sniff dumo.)
05/20-17:06:45.061034 192.160.13.4:31337 -> 172.16.1.101:1
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seq: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
...
05/20-17:06:58.685879 192.160.13.4:31337 ->
172.16.1.101:1024
TCP TTL:44 TOS:0x10 ID:242
***FRP** Seg: 0XA1D95 Ack: 0x53 Win: 0x400
What is odd about this attack? (Choose the most appropriate statement)
A. This is not a spoofed packet as the IP stack has increasing numbers for the three flags.
B. This is back orifice activity as the scan comes from port 31337.
C. The attacker wants to avoid creating a sub-carrier connection that is not normally
valid.
D. There packets were created by a tool; they were not created by a standard IP stack.
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-50   312-50 examen   312-50   312-50 examen

NO.16 A very useful resource for passively gathering information about a target company
is:
A. Host scanning
B. Whois search
C. Traceroute
D. Ping sweep
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL examen   312-50   certification 312-50   312-50 examen   312-50 examen

NO.17 To what does "message repudiation" refer to what concept in the realm of email
security?
A. Message repudiation means a user can validate which mail server or servers a message
was passed through.
B. Message repudiation means a user can claim damages for a mail message that
damaged their reputation.
C. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
particular person.
D. Message repudiation means a recipient can be sure that a message was sent from a
certain host.
E. Message repudiation means a sender can claim they did not actually send a particular
message.
Answer: E

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-50   312-50   certification 312-50

NO.18 Where should a security tester be looking for information that could be used by an
attacker against an organization? (Select all that apply)
A. CHAT rooms
B. WHOIS database
C. News groups
D. Web sites
E. Search engines
F. Organization's own web site
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

EC-COUNCIL   312-50   312-50   certification 312-50

NO.19 Who is an Ethical Hacker?
A. A person whohacksfor ethical reasons
B. A person whohacksfor an ethical cause
C. A person whohacksfor defensive purposes
D. A person whohacksfor offensive purposes
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL examen   certification 312-50   certification 312-50   312-50   312-50 examen   certification 312-50

NO.20 Which of the following activities will NOT be considered as passive footprinting?
A. Go through the rubbish to find out any information that might have been discarded.
B. Search on financial site such as Yahoo Financial to identify assets.
C. Scan the range of IP address found in the target DNS database.
D. Perform multiples queries using a search engine.
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL   certification 312-50   312-50   312-50 examen

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Code d'Examen: M2050-653
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Emptoris Strategic Supply Management Sales Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 42 Q&As

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NO.1 From the selection list below, which option best describes why a customer would purchase the
Spend Analysis solution?
A. Manage "at risk" suppliers
B. Move contracts through faster to win more deals
C. To bring more spend under management
D. Guarantee more "on-time" delivery from suppliers
Answer: C

IBM   M2050-653   certification M2050-653
Reference:https://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=7&cad=rja
&ved=0CFsQFjAG&url=http%3A%2F%2Fassetsproduction.govstore.service.gov.uk%2FGiii%2520Atta
chments%2FIBM%2520UNITED%25
20KINGDOM%2520LTD%2FBids%2FArchive1%2FIBM_G_Cloud_III%2520V1.1%2FIBM %2520Emptori
s%2520Shared%2520Service%2520%2520Service%2520Description%2520v5.3%2520Feb%2520201
3.docx&ei=Ot9KUoroAo2
w4QTrmoHQCA&usg=AFQjCNFhcgaajHtmrSdztzU3QxC-YjzdVw&sig2=x8ujBpRKzM1NCSRv2ByQg

NO.2 Which of the following does not qualify as a prospect?
A. Annual budget for software is $50k
B. Number of mobile devices is greater than 1,000
C. Customer is currently considering Ariba, Bravo, CombineNet, lasta
D. Annual spend with the suppliers is greater than $400m
Answer: D

IBM examen   M2050-653   M2050-653 examen

NO.3 There are many benefits derived from Emptoris Sourcing.
Which is not one?
A. Enforce compliance to standard process
B. Actively monitor supplier risk
C. Increase Adoption with RFx Wizards and Templates
D. Analyze "Non-Price" Factors to award suppliers
Answer: A

IBM   M2050-653 examen   certification M2050-653   certification M2050-653
Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/industries/publicsector/fileserve?contentid=243307

NO.4 Below are example of Emptoris business drivers in the healthcare industry. Which one does
not apply?
A. A New CPO has been chartered by the CEO/COO to drive down operating costs
B. Successful usage of contract management for managing provider contracts
C. Pressure to reduce operating and medical costs while maintaining standards of care
D. Face-to-face channels where the customer interacts directly with agents who are able to
communicate with the portal electronically
Answer: C

IBM   M2050-653   certification M2050-653   M2050-653   M2050-653

NO.5 In cases where a prospect has multiple instances of ERP systems, Emptoris' Spend Analysis
value proposition most accurately reflects:
A. Ability to pull these sources together, cleansing the data and providing a single common view of a
process.
B. Provide a document management approach as opposed to a continuous synchronization of the
document with the data base
C. A proven track record of capturing savings in categories such as ingredients, raw materials,
assemblies, transportation, IT, facilities.
D. Segment the supplier base across multiple categories, geographies, and business units to manage
performance and evaluate capabilities at a local or global dimension.
Answer: A

IBM   certification M2050-653   M2050-653

NO.6 A customer would NOT use Contract Management to become best in class via:
A. Obligation control
B. Contract Authoring
C. Gaining Contract Visibility
D. Running eAuctions
Answer: D

IBM examen   M2050-653   M2050-653   M2050-653

NO.7 Who is not a main stream competitor?
A. SAP
B. Upside
C. Ariba
D. Hiperos
Answer: D

IBM examen   M2050-653   certification M2050-653   certification M2050-653
Reference:http://blogs.forrester.com/andrew_bartels/11-12-15ibms_acquisition_of_emptoris_mov
es_it_squarely_into_the_epurchasing_software_market _watch_out_for_f

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Code d'Examen: C2140-820
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Team Concert V4)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the velocity for a development team following the Scrum process template?
A. the average number of hours the team can deliver in an iteration
B. the average number of stories the team can deliver in an iteration
C. the average number of story points the team can deliver in an iteration
D. the average number of tasks the team can deliver in an iteration
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification C2140-820   C2140-820

NO.2 An organization uses the Formal Project Management process template for a project. Some
work items in the Gantt chart view of an iteration plan for the project are shown in red. What does
red indicate?
A. high severity
B. high priority
C. on the critical path
D. unassigned
Answer: C

IBM   C2140-820   C2140-820 examen

NO.3 What is the main purpose of the work item discussion section?
A. to add notes and exchange information about the work item
B. to assign the owner of the work item
C. to move the work item through its lifecycle to the resolved state
D. to associate a work item with a release
Answer: A

certification IBM   C2140-820   C2140-820 examen   certification C2140-820

NO.4 Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The Deliver operation copies change sets from the repository workspace to the flow target.
B. The Check-In operation copies files modified from the local sandbox to the repository workspace.
C. The Check-Out operation copies files from the repository workspace into the local sandbox.
D. The Accept operation copies change sets from the flow target into the repository workspace and
local sandbox.
Answer: A,B,D

certification IBM   C2140-820   certification C2140-820

NO.5 When does the RTC SCM detect conflicts? (Choose two.)
A. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from the same user
B. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same file
C. When incoming and outgoing change sets include changes to the same folders
D. When incoming and outgoing change sets are coming from two different users
Answer: B,C

IBM examen   C2140-820   C2140-820   certification C2140-820

NO.6 In an iteration plan, which value is represented by the length of the progress bar
A. The amount of work estimated
B. The amount of work completed
C. The amount of work on schedule
D. The amount of active work
Answer: B

IBM   C2140-820   certification C2140-820

NO.7 A team wants to make some attributes mandatory when work items are created. In order to
meet this objective, want can be done in Rational Team Concert ?
A. Work item attributes are all optional by design and there is no way to define mandatory
attributes for work items
B. Add a precondition to the Work Item Save operation to define which fields in a work item must
be filled in before it can be saved
C. Work item attributes are all mandatory by design. Users who create a work item are required to
fill in all the attributes.
D. Add a follow-up action to the Work Item Save operation to define the error message to display
when mandatory attributes are not filled in
Answer: B

IBM   C2140-820 examen   C2140-820   C2140-820

NO.8 What are configurable items for the process template?
A. timelines, iterations, roles, and operational behaviors
B. plugins, cheat sheets, and dependencies
C. Java source code, source comments, and event handlers
D. categories, releases, and access control
Answer: A

certification IBM   C2140-820   C2140-820   certification C2140-820

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Code d'Examen: C2040-408
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application Development Update)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 Which option will provide a formatted table with two columns, three rows, a title,
description, and footer area?
A. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><td><tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td> <td> <tr></tr><tr></tr><tr></tr></td>
</table>
B. Add a computed field to the custom control, change the content type to HTML, and enter the
following code: <table><tr><td></td><td></td></tr><tr> <td></td><td></td></tr><tr>
<td></td><td></td></tr></table>.
C. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drop a formlayout row onto the table. Drop two layout column
controls onto the row. Repeat twice for the additional rows.
D. Add a form table control to the custom control. Enter a title and description to the form title and
form description form options. Drag a formlayout column onto the table. Drop three form layout
row controls onto the column. Repeat for the second column.
Answer: D

IBM   C2040-408   C2040-408   certification C2040-408

NO.2 When using the Pager Save State Control, which property is used to define which control the
pager applies to?
A. for
B. target
C. binding
D. refreshId
Answer: A

IBM   C2040-408   certification C2040-408   certification C2040-408   C2040-408

NO.3 Richard wants to allow his users to select names from either of two views using the Name
Picker control. How can he do this?
A. Richard can use a single Name Picker with two dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders.
B. Richard will need to add two Name Pickers, each using a dominoViewNamePicker dataProvider.
C. Richard will need to use a beanNamePicker dataProvider to merge the contents of the two views
for a single Name Picker.
D. Richard can use a single Name Picker with a namePickerAggregator dataProvider. He can add two
dominoViewNamePicker dataProviders tothe namePickerAggregator.
Answer: D

certification IBM   C2040-408   C2040-408   C2040-408 examen

NO.4 What are two ways Olly can identify which of his applications are not assigned to a working set?
(Choose two.)
A. Open Bookmarks.nsf and look in the Working Sets\None view.
B. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select All.
C. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select None.
D. In Quick Links tab of the home page, click on the "Applications Not in Working Set" option.
E. In the Applications view, in the Manage Working Sets menu, select "Applications Not in Working
Set".
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 Olivia is adding a Send Mail simple action to her XPages application. Which two types of
formats are available for the body field of the email? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. MIME
C. HTML
D. Rich text
E. Plain text
Answer: C,E

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NO.6 Hannah would like to exclude an application's image files from synchronizing with the Version
Control Management system. How can she configure this?
A. Hannah needs to list the filenames in the .svnignore file.
B. Select the files, right-click and select Do not synchronize.
C. Choose Preferences > Team > Ignore Resources > Add pattern.
D. Choose Preferences > Domino Designer > Source Control > Exclusion List.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Mary wants to debug the uncompressed version of the xspClientDojo.js. Which action can she
perform in order to do this?
A. Set the "Use Dojo layer libraries" option in the XSP Properties editor.
B. Set the "Use runtime optimized JavaScript and Dojo" option in the XSP Properties editor.
C. Set the "Use uncompressed resource files (CSS & Dojo)" option in the XSP Properties editor.
D. Uncompress the xspClientDojo.js file manually and upload it to IBM Domino Desginer via a JS
Library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Samantha would like to use the Search functionality provided in the Application Layout control.
What does she need to do to configure search on the Application Layout control in the Properties
view?
A. Samantha needs to click on the Place Bar tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displaying results.
B. Samantha needs to click on the All Properties tab, enter "true" for the showSearch property, and
select the Page Name for displayingresults.
C. Samantha needs to select the Title Bar tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
D. Samantha needs to click on the Search tab, select "Show search controls (options dropdown, edit
box, and search icon)", and select the PageName for displaying results.
Answer: D

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NO.9 David has added a Name Picker control to his XPages bound to an Edit Box control. He needs
to allow the users to select multiple names. Assuming type-ahead is not enabled, how would he do
that?
A. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Client separators box
(multipleSeparator property).
B. Go to the Name Picker control. Add a multi-value separator to the Suggestions separators box
(valueListSeparator property).
C. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a multi-value
separator to the multipleSeparatorproperty.
D. Go to the Edit Box control that will store the values. In the All Properties table, enter a
multi-value separator to the valueListSeparatorproperty.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Ellie wants to add an icon as the first column on her Data View. How can she achieve this?
A. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the details facet.
B. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn to the iconColumn property.
C. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the extraColumns property.
D. Ellie should add an xe:viewIconColumn as the first column in the summaryColumn property.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2010-502
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices V2.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 Which mobile devices can only be managed using the Management Extender for Microsoft
Exchange?
A. AppleiOS4.xdevices
B. BlackBerry OS 10 devices
C. SAEE enabled Android devices
D. Microsoft Windows Mobile 5.x devices
Answer: B

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NO.2 Apple devices are not receiving commands sent from the iOS Management Extender. Which
log file should be checked to ensure the iOS extender is communicating with the Apple Push
Notification Service?
A. jetty.log
B. apns.log
C. iosmdm.log
D. mdm_tasks.log
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Management Extender for iOS devices opens a Command Port to listen for commands
received from the IBM Endpoint Manager server. What is the default port value?
A. 23
B. 443
C. 52311
D. 52315
Answer: D

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NO.4 When creating a Samsung SAFE Capability Profile what are two of the system security'
restrictions that can be set for SAFE compatible mobile devices? (Choose two.)
A. disable Bluetooth
B. disable the microphone
C. enable encryption of internal storage
D. enable encryption of external storage
E. define the required maximum password length
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What is the recommended maximum number of iOS devices that should report to an iOS
management extender?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 5000
D. 10000
Answer: C

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NO.6 Where would a device obtain an APK file during application installation once it has been
imported to the IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices? (Choose two.)
A. relay
B. App Store
C. Google Play
D. corporate intranet site
E. IBM Endpoint Manager server
Answer: A,E

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NO.7 An IBM Endpoint Manager administrator who is responsible for managing iOS mobile devices
needs to view a list of applications installed on a particular OS device. Where can this be done?
A. Mobile Device dashboard
B. iOS Device View dashboard
C. Single Device View dashboard
D. Enterprise Apps Management dashboard
Answer: C

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NO.8 What must occur in order to remove an iOS profile from a managed device?
A. The profile must not be encrypted.
B. The profile must contain an administrator password.
C. The profile must have been encrypted at the time of deployment.
D. The profile must have been deployed using IBM Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices.
Answer: D

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NO.9 An employee's corporate mobile device managed by IBM Endpoint Manager (IEM) was stolen.
The device is accessing corporate data both using e-mail and VPN profiles. Which action can be
initiated by the EM console operator to protect access to corporate data?
A. run the action of task Device Wipe against the stolen device
B. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Corporate Device against the stolen device
C. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Android Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
D. run the action of task Selectively Wipe Apple iOS Device (Deprovision) against the stolen device
Answer: A

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NO.10 An Android device cannot be enrolled with a message similar to: Received an invalid server
URL. What should be checked by the IBM Endpoint Manager administrator to identity the problem?
A. confirm the Trusted Service Provider is up and running
B. make sure the provided server name points to the enrollment server
C. make sure the provided URL points to the Trusted Service Provider URL
D. check if the maximum number of device has been reached for the enrollment server
Answer: B

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