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Code d'Examen: HP0-S14
Nom d'Examen: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which package integrates with HP SIM 5.1 to support monitoring and management of Itanium-based
server blades running HP-UX?
A. HP Integrity Essentials
B. HP ProLiant Essentials
C. HP OpenView Operations
D. HP SmartStart Scripting toolkit
Answer: A

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NO.2 When is system polling initiated?
A. when a system has generated an error condition
B. when a new system is added to the HP SIM database
C. when the HP SIM central management server (CMS) powers on
D. when HP SIM receives an alert from a managed system to determine system status
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which protocols are used in HP SIM to query events from failing devices? (Select two.)
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: CE

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NO.4 When is it necessary to install the WMI Mapper on a Windows-based Central Management Server
(CMS)?
A. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Linux operating system
B. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP-UX operating system
C. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Windows operating system
D. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP OpenVMS operating system
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which HP SIM procedure determines the system management protocol of a detected device and its
operating system?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which MX command generated the output shown in the exhibit?
A. mxtool
B. mxuser
C. mxauth
D. mxtoolbox
Answer: A

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NO.7 When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a BladeSystem GbE2c interconnect
switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the GbE2c interconnect switch is not active.
C. The GbE2c interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The GbE2c interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You find a 'critical' status in the Virtual Machine Management (VMM) column in HP SIM for the host
server running Microsoft Virtual Server 2005. What does this mean?
A. The virtual machine guest is in a state requiring attention.
B. The virtual machine host is licensed but is not currently communicating with VMM.
C. The VMM agent is installed on the virtual machine host but the host is not licensed.
D. The VMM agent is installed on the server but the server is not a virtual machine host.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What happens when HP Storage Essentials integrates with HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SNMP for storage devices is disabled.
B. Data collection from SMI-S devices in HP SIM is disabled.
C. All storage-related events are forwarded to Storage Essentials.
D. Storage devices get marked as managed by Storage Essentials.
E. A new Storage Essentials user is added to the HP SIM user database.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Which function regarding virtual machines is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. discovery of HP virtual machine systems
B. support for Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 remote console through a Mozilla browser
C. use of VMware Management Interface as a stand-alone tool to launch the remote console
D. not necessary to install VMware Remote Console on the system from which you are launching remote
console
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which types of HP Systems Insight Manager tools can be run on target systems? (Select three.)
A. XML-based type aware
B. all-system aware (ASA)
C. Intel system aware (ISA)
D. web launch aware (WLA)
E. single-system aware (SSA)
F. multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.12 Which protocol requires a special HP SIM component that configures the managed device to send
alerts to the Central Management Server (CMS) because it does not provide alerting capabilities?
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. WBEM
Answer: B

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NO.13 What does HP SIM 5.1 require to access management information on an HP ProLiant server running
Microsoft Windows Server 2003?
A. DMI
B. SSH-2
C. WBEM
D. Open SSH
E. WMI Mapper proxy
Answer: E

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NO.14 You have recently added a ProLiant BL20p G1 to the server blade enclosure monitored by PMP. At the
PMP License Administration page, this new server does not appear in the list of servers. Why?
A. The server does not have a valid serial number.
B. The server is too old and not supported by PMP.
C. The server has not yet been discovered by HP SIM.
D. The operating system running on this server is not supported.
E. The HP Insight Management Agents on this server are not at the required version.
Answer: C

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NO.15 HP SIM 5.1 features API support to allow dynamic creation of new event types. What does this
support enable you to do?
A. Modify event types without having full configuration rights.
B. Modify event types without manually updating the HP SIM database.
C. Add event types without restarting the HP SIM central management server (CMS).
D. Add event types without manually refreshing any event collections that display in the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what are some prerequisites for the source
virtual machine? (Select two.)
A. Stop the HP SIM management agents on the virtual machine guest.
B. Insert the SMP Boot CD into the CD-ROM of the virtual machine guest.
C. Verify that the source virtual machine guest is powered off or suspended.
D. Verify that the source virtual machine host is licensed and managed by VMM.
E. Ensure that all network connections on the virtual machine guest have DHCP IP addresses.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Which HP SIM process determines the associations between a management processor and its server,
a server blade and its enclosure, and an enclosure and its rack?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which function of the command mxquery is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. The mxquery command can provide output in XML format.
B. The language of the query results depends on the CMS locale.
C. Users with limited configuration rights privileges can execute mxquery.
D. To run mxquery, you no longer need access to the file system where HP SIM is installed.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which protocols are used by HP SIM to identify nodes running Linux? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. SSH
D. HTTP
E. SNMP
F. WBEM
Answer: DEF

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NO.20 HP SIM 5.1 removes support for which product?
A. Oracle9i on HP-UX systems
B. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager
C. PostgreSQL on x64 Linux operating systems
D. Insight Control Management Integrated Installer
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Supporting ESL E-Series and EML E-Series Libraries)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 What are the standard cabling requirements for the Interface Manager card of an EML E-Series tape
library?
A.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
B.4 x Ethernet to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
C.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Ethernet to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
D.4 x Fibre Channel to interface controllers, 1 x Fibre Channel to robotics controller, 1 x Ethernet to LAN
Answer: A

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NO.2 For which connection, other than the cabinet controller, is the I2C network cable used in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.external LANs
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management cards
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which item number represents the host Fibre Channel connections?
A.4
B.6
C.9
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does the cabinet controller assembly of an ESL E-Series tape library provide a SCSI interface
to?
A.tape devices
B.library robotics
C.management interface card
D.e2400-160 Interface Controller
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the Stop button on the Operator Control Panel of ESL E-Series tape libraries?
A.to halt the robotics
B.to restart the library
C.to shut down the library
D.to pause a running backup process
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which scheme is used in the Command Line Interface for drive and slot numbers in ESL E-Series
tape libraries?
A.0 based
B.1 based
C.2 based
D.Hex based
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which component is connected to port E1 of the cluster controller if it is in drive cluster 0 of an ESL
E-Series tape library?
A.cabinet controller
B.Interface Controller
C.lower cluster controller
D.Interface Manager card
Tape Library
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are possible causes of inventory failure in ESL E-Series tape libraries? (Select two.)
A.The library has a drive failure.
B.One of the clusters is disconnected.
C.The library front is facing bright sunlight.
D.Unapproved bar code labels are being used.
E.The Interface Controller is disconnected from the Fibre Channel switch.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which statement about an EML E-Series library is correct?
A.It allows serverless backup with only a few configuration steps if a Secure Manager license is installed.
B.The initial configuration can be done over the front panel, Command View TL or the serial port on the
robotics controller using CLI.
C.It is fully compliant with the Storage Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S) and can be
configured with HP Storage Essentials.
D.It bridges the capabilities and features between the business-class HP StorageWorks MSL Series and
enterprise-class ESL E-Series tape libraries.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which HP document provides the most current, supported configurations for Enterprise class libraries
in a SAN environment?
A.Service Guide
B.SAN Design Guide
C.EBS Compatibility Matrix
D.training course documentation
Answer: C

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NO.11 With which management specification does the Command View TL Provider comply?
A.Direct Management Initiative (DMI)
B.Advanced Remote Management (ARM)
C.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
D.Storage Management Initiative Specification (SMI-S)
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are the main considerations when choosing a location for an EML E-Series tape library? (Select
three.)
A.floor space
B.room height
C.power requirements
D.lighting requirements
E.grounding requirements
F.distance to disk storage
Answer: ACE

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NO.13 Which tape device attribute does the ESL E-Series tape library Interface Manager use to determine
the physical location of each tape drive in the library?
A.bus number
B.SCSI address
C.serial number
D.drive slot position
Answer: C

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NO.14 How often is the CommandView TL Health Summary screen updated?
A.every 30 seconds
B.at 15-minute intervals
C.whenever the library status changes
D.configurable to any value up to 900 seconds
Answer: C

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NO.15 What is reported by the LP/PNL sensor of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.library door status
B.x-axis motor position
C.y-axis motor position
D.magazines and load ports status
Answer: D

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component does the exhibit display?
A.cluster controller
B.cabinet controller
C.Interface Manager
D.Interface Controller
Answer: C

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the maximum supported number of drives that can be installed in a CLM configuration?
A.40
B.44
C.60
D.64
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the maximum cartridge slot count in an EML E-Series library?
A.325
B.470
C.505
D.595
Answer: C

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NO.19 What can you do to speed up the power-on process while troubleshooting an EML 71e library?
A.Remove all media from the library.
B.Power-on the library with the load port door open.
C.Disable the auto audit, remembering to re-enable it and reboot the library before leaving the customer
site.
D.Configure inventory mode to bar code labels not required, remembering to reset bar code labels
required before leaving the customer site.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What can be connected using the vacant Ethernet port on the right side of the cabinet controller in an
ESL E-Series tape library?
A.an external LAN
B.cluster controllers
C.interface management card
D.Fibre Channel interface controllers
Answer: A

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NO.21 How many cartridge slots can be used in an 8U drive expansion module mounted at the bottom of an
EML E-Series library?
A.48
B.87
C.94
D.103
Answer: B

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NO.22 Click the Exhibit button.
What does Number 2 on the exhibit represent?
A.x axis motor
B.y axis motor
C.optical scanner
D.home position sensor
Answer: B

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library configuration is shown in the Operator Control Panel Library screen?
A.last cabinet
B.primary cabinet
C.secondary cabinet
D.stand-alone cabinet
Answer: B

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NO.24 What must be configured in CommandView TL when manually adding an ESL E-Series library?
A.library IP address
B.library serial number
C.tape drive and robot SCSI IDs
D.Interface Manager user name and password
Answer: A

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NO.25 Click the Exhibit button.
Which ESL E-Series tape library component (used to carry data cartridges to a secondary cabinet) is
shown in the figure?
A.CLM arm
B.CLM controller
C.picker assembly
D.cartridge transfer robot
Answer: A

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NO.26 What are advantages of using Secure Manager EML? (Select two.)
A.It allows library partitioning.
B.Management of direct backup is allowed.
C.It provides faster access to tape devices.
D.Device level mapping is easily configured.
E.User access management is easily configured.
Answer: AD

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NO.27 Which parts of the Extended Tape Library Architecture are SNIA compliant and support the Storage
Management Initiative Specifications (SMI-S)? (Select two.)
A.Secure Manager
B.Interface Manager
C.Interface Controller
D.Robotics Controller
E.Command View Tape Library
Answer: BE

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NO.28 What is important to remember when changing from Manual to Automatic mode of the Interface
Manager of an ESL E-Series tape library?
A.All drives must be taken offline.
B.Fibre Channel cables must be unplugged.
C.Interface Controllers must be powered off first.
D.Any customizations created in Manual mode will be lost.
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is the hard wired IP address of the Interface Manager card in an EML E-Series tape library on the
private network?
A.1.1.1.1
B.10.0.0.1
C.192.168.2.1
D.155.155.155.1
Answer: C

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NO.30 When is Lock Element Addressing used in the ESL E-Series library?
A.with multiple tape drive clusters
B.as an electronic lock of the access doors
C.when multiple Interface Controllers are used
D.for cross-linked libraries with three or more cabinets
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-144
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.2 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.4 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.7 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.14 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.15 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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Code d'Examen: HP0-790
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Routing Switch Essentials v5.21)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

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NO.1 The administrator of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m enters spanning-tree in the global
configuration context. Which Spanning Tree topology is enabled on the switch?
A.Single-instance Spanning Tree
B.Rapid Spanning Tree
C.Extended Spanning Tree
D.Per-VLAN Spanning Tree
Correct:D

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NO.2 You must set 802.1w Bridge Priorities for a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and a Switch 5300xl.
What is a difference between the Bridge Priority settings on these two models?
A.On the 9300m, the Bridge Priority is set at actual value. The 5300xl uses a multiplier.
B.The 9300m supports 4096 Bridge Priority values. The 5300xl supports 16.
C.On the 5300xl, 0 is the lowest Bridge Priority. On the 9300m, 0 is the normal priority.
D.The 5300xl supports a separate Bridge Priority for each STP instance. On the 9300m, a single priority
is applied to all STP instances.
Correct:A

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NO.3 What is the size of the address range specified in the following ACL entry? access-list 1 permit
192.168.192.0 0.0.1.255?
A.256 addresses
B.512 addresses
C.1,024 addresses
D.65,536 addresses
E.16,777,216 addresses
Correct:B

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NO.4 A customer network includes a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m and several 5300xl switches. If
the 5300s are configured at default, which protocol must be enabled on the 9300m in order for all
the switches to participate in a single Spanning Tree domain?
A.IEEE 802.1X
B.IEEE 802.1Q
C.IEEE 802.1s
D.IEEE 802.1w
Correct:D

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NO.5 The global context in the running configuration of a ProCurve Routing Switch 9300m includes
the spanning-tree single 802-1w command. However, each of the VLAN contexts includes the
spanning-tree command. How will the switch implement Spanning Tree?
A.The switch will implement the Spanning Tree version included in BPDUs it receives from neighbors.
B.The switch will implement a single instance of IEEE 802.1w.
C.The switch will not join a Spanning Tree because of the mismatch between configured versions.
D.The switch will implement per-VLAN IEEE 802.1D and ignore the global configuration command.
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J29
Nom d'Examen: HP (Replication Solutions for the HP StorageWorks EVA)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio
of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A.1:4
B.2:4
C.3:1
D.4:2
Correct:C

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NO.2 When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are
required?
A.2
B.8
C.4
D.12
Correct:C

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NO.3 A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM).
While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches
from Microsoft. What happens to that script?
A.System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B.Any snapshots and snapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C.Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D.The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Correct:C

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NO.4 When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA
environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A.Replication Solution Manager host agent
B.HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C.HP StorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D.HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Correct:C

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NO.5 A.What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low
B.performance impact?
C.a latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
D.a latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
E.a 4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
F.an 8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Correct:C

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NO.6 A.Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state,
is
B.automatically updated whenever the source Vdisk is updated?
C.synchronized mirrorclones
D.synchronous Continuous Access
E.synchronized containers
F.enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Correct:A

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NO.7 What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A.replica snapshot
B.dynamic snapshot
C.instantaneous snapshot
D.virtual snapshot
Correct:D

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NO.8 Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages. Which
statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A.NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure with 16
server blades.
B.You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches in C-Class
blade enclosures.
C.In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade enclosures.
D.NPIV makes a single Fibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own N_Port ID
and virtual WWN.
E.NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric OS so that
it can be consistently managed with the
F.
Correct:C D

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NO.9 Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software
provide?
A.the ability to provision storage on the fly
B.the ability to monitor EVA Vdisks and DR groups
C.the ability to monitor Vdisk performance and relocate as required
D.the ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Correct:D

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NO.10 What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks
Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A.Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
B.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual Arrays.
C.Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual Array.
D.Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
E.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
Correct:B C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-754
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

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NO.5 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

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NO.6 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-754   HP0-754

NO.7 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.9 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.10 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

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NO.11 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.13 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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NO.14 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.15 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.17 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.19 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y22
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProCurve MultiService)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 The MSM730 has 4 Ethernet ports; one for the LAN and another for the Internet. What is the
function of the other two Ethernet ports?
A. CLI access
B. client connectivity
C. reserved for future expansion
D. uplinks
Answer: C

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NO.2 If a DHCP server does not exist on a network, the Ethernet port on an autonomous mode
MSM Access Point would be assigned a default IP address of 192.168.1.1. Given this information,
which statement is correct?
A. An internal DHCP server in the MSM Access Point can be configured to assign any appropriate IP
Address to the port.
B. An internal dip switch can be configured to change the default IP address of the Ethernet port.
C. An autonomous mode MSM Access Point can be ordered with the option of a different Default IP
Address that could be assigned to its Ethernet port.
D. Without an external DHCP server, the port will always remain at 192.168.1.1.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does a client associated to an MSM Access Point receive its DHCP IP Address?
A. from either the AP's internal DHCP server or an external DHCP server
B. it cannot receive a DHCP IP Address and a static IP Address is required
C. through an external DHCP server
D. with the AP's internal DHCP server
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which 802.11n frequency ranges are supported on the MSM422? (Select two.)
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 72 MHz
E. 105.7 MHz
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What are the characteristics of the MSM422?
A. a/b/g/n, single radio
B. a/b/g/n, triple radio, integrated AP/Controller
C. a/b/g/n, dual radio, mixed radios
D. a/b/g, dual radio, mixed radios
Answer: C

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NO.6 ProCurve's RF Planner is made specifically for which operating system?
A. Linux
B. MAC OS
C. Microsoft Windows
D. Sun Microsystems Solaris
Answer: C

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NO.7 On the MSM710, PoE can power the device from which port?
A. port 1
B. Internet port
C. LAN port
D. only as a backup to the direct DC power adapter
Answer: C

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NO.8 How many Virtual Service Communities (VSCs) does the M110 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have been asked by your customer to create a wireless network in a public area with
centralized user authentication. Given the following choices, which authentication method would
you choose to implement?
A. 802.1X authentication
B. MAC authentication
C. Web authentication
D. WEP authentication
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the key features of ProCurve Guest Management Software (formerly VMT)? (Select
two.)
A. the ability to create user logo designs
B. the ability to perform batch creation of user accounts
C. the ability to print X.509 certificates
D. the ability to manage a visitor's account on MSM controllers
E. the ability to import special programs for customer use
Answer: B,D

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