IBM meilleur examen 000-667, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 000-667
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Architectural Design of SOA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 A mortgage loan provider currently has legacy applications utilized by a network of branches and
franchised agents. They want to expand by adding a new channel to allow independent mortgage brokers
to submit mortgage loan applications. They realize they must provide a differentiating offering to the
independent mortgage brokers to attract participants and grow the new channel.
How can SOA benefit their requirement?
A. By building an SOA with a secure connectivity layer, they could quickly enable the mortgage broker
channel to use their applications without any changes to the legacy system.
B. They could reduce the cost to develop new applications needed for each independent broker by
reusing services as integration code that is written for each broker's system to expedite development.
C. By service enabling the legacy applications and offering a Web-based portal for independent brokers,
they can minimize the impact to existing channels, minimize changes to existing code, and quickly create
an offering for the new channel.
D. By implementing security and governance as part of an SOA deployment, they can control access to
the current system to determine which brokers are using the system and personalize their marketing to
the high usage brokers.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An engineering services company is being asked by its customers to provide solutions that cross Line
of Business (LOB) areas. Each LOB is independent and is measured on its own profitability. The Chief
Operating Officer plans to make some organizational changes.
How could SOA enable this business transformation?
A. Provide an abstraction layer for each LOB application that will allow flexible composition of services
tailored to each LOB business model. Create an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) that supports integration of
systems across the LOBs for reuse.
B. Provide shared business services by migrating to a commercial Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
system that can be service-enabled for access through an enterprise portal or from existing individual
LOB applications.
C. Implement information as a service to consolidate data models and sharing across LOBs. Support
governance of the service portfolio at an enterprise level.
D. Create an architecture board for each LOB to introduce SOA processes and drive service identification,
goal modeling and business process re-engineering in support of mapping services to business
capabilities.
Answer: C

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NO.3 The IBM SOA Foundation includes services that support business innovation and optimization.
What should be found in an SOA solution compliant with the SOA Foundation?
A. Automatic recognition of marketplace trends and dynamic reconfiguration of services in support
B. Business process simulation to predict the effect that process changes might have on the business
C. Alerts generated whenever business efficiency drops below a predefined threshold
D. An SOA dashboard for executives showing new business opportunities categorized by Return on
Investment (ROI)
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can a designer most effectively integrate components developed in various technologies at
different companies into a composite application within an SOA?
A. Through careful coordination to ensure compatible interfaces
B. Through the use of industry standards such as SOAP over HTTPS
C. By placing the components in a service repository which will mediate the differences in their interfaces
D. By providing code mediation and transformation functions through a business process modeling effort
Answer: B

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NO.5 A retail catalog companys printing and mailing expenses are growing much more rapidly than revenue.
Each time they update their database, they ship more catalogs and customers call in with more
corrections.
Which evaluation and recommendation should the SOA Designer make?
A. Data quality is low. Master data management should be installed to cleanse and maintain data quality
both from data sources and updates from the call center.
B. Third party mail lists are inconsistent. Use process modeling to identify when multiple records are
created and how multiple catalogs get printed. Then use process simulation to optimize new processes.
C. Processes do not incorporate data cleansing. Create an information service that retrieves similar
records and displays them in a portlet, so operators can see multiple records and work with the customer
to eliminate them.
D. Data entry is a very common source of error and customers are often inconsistent as well. Operator
generated updates should be re-implemented to the indirect exposure solution pattern to separate data
entry from record update permitting a data cleansing step in the update processes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D

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NO.7 A government agency wants to ensure the selected patterns and code standards set down by their SOA
governance body are adhered to.
Which type of tool will support this?
A. Code generation
B. Parsing
C. UML modeling
D. Data modeling
Answer: A

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NO.8 A company wants to integrate a number of existing best-of-breed applications by implementing service
facades and an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB). The initial scenario involves the transfer of order
information between a number of these backend services depending on business rules.
An SOA Designer is asked to capture the functional requirements.
What is the most appropriate starting point.?
A. Analysis of the information requirements of the existing applications
B. Investigation into appropriate industry standards for transferring data
C. Creation of use cases to understand what the services may be and how they interact
D. Define the component model associated with the existing applications and specify the service
interfaces
Answer: C

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NO.9 A Fortune 100 company is migrating its Enterprise Application Integration (EAI) architecture to SOA.
The intent is to begin exposing its capabilities to business partners. The CIO is thinking about building a
high speed, custom messaging solution so there is capacity for future growth.
What should the SOA Designer say about the long-term implications of that direction?
A. A custom messaging solution could provide performance advantages if development priority is
allocated to provide standards-based connectors and adapters for business partners to connect.
B. XML messages can be transformed at wire speed using Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) appliances like
WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliance, so it is not necessary to be concerned with that part of the
system's performance.
C. Total cost of ownership will increase with custom middleware. Open standards-based commercial
messaging products are more interoperable, extensible, scalable, replaceable, and reliable than
custom-built systems.
D. It will take a serious commitment to detailed technical support to make this happen. It is always a
tradeoff between standards-based compliance and performance. The implementation of the custom
messaging will need to provide serious performance advantages to business partners.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A team is evaluating the maturity of a customer's solution architecture relative to the IBM SOA
Foundation. It is discovered that the customer has invested heavily in an internally-developed Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) and that their ESB has functionality expected to be found in other SOA Foundation
services, especially Process Services, Business Services, and Information Services.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Continue development of the ESB because the architecture is generally compliant with the SOA
Foundation.
B. Stop development of the ESB because the architecture violates the principle of loose coupling among
services.
C. Continue using the ESB but begin a transition to a vendor-supported, standards-compliant ESB.
D. Modify development priorities to shift Process Services functionality to other parts of the Solution
Architecture.
Answer: C

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NO.11 A company has an existing message-based middleware solution that allows exchanging business
information among several applications using a topic-based publish-subscribe integration pattern. As part
of its SOA strategy, the company is now embarking on service-enabling the applications and wants to
employ the publish-subscribe pattern using Web services technology.
Which Web services specification best addresses this need?
A. WS-Federation
B. WS-Addressing
C. WS-Notification
D. WS-MetaDataExchange
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-667   000-667

NO.12 A midsize city is experiencing rapid growth that requires extensive changes in city land use regulations.
Under this pressure, many land use disputes are getting caught in endless inter-departmental exchanges
to complete data collection using a variety of completion criteria. This is angering both citizens and land
developers.
Which approach to SOA is likely to have the greatest impact?
A. Apply governance policies and procedures to control inter-departmental exchanges.
B. Align the departments with a common end-to-end process with shared business services.
C. Align the departments with a common data model and data access services to avoid confusion and
duplication.
D. Create citizens portals to provide a mechanism for citizens to more easily monitor and manage their
role in the process.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the next step while architecting an SOA solution after documenting the business processes?
A. Determine the operations required to realize each process.
B. Select a business steward for each process and instruct the steward to identify re-usable services.
C. Identify the services needed to realize each business process and group them into logical components.
D. Identify core and non-core business components.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-667   000-667   000-667

NO.14 The SOA reference architecture identifies core services including Interaction, Process, Information,
Partner, Access, and Infrastructure.
What is one valid reason for excluding one or more of these services in an SOA?
A. The application is predominantly middleware in nature, eliminating the need for presentation services.
B. The consumer and the provider belong to different companies.
C. The business sponsor has set budget constraints on solution architecture and the architectural
components to be included have to be prioritized.
D. The customer's internal politics make the specification too difficult.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A large airline has decided to use SOA as a means to reduce costs through the use of an Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) based infrastructure. The IT strategy group has purchased sophisticated messaging
middleware and prototyped some services related to accessing passenger information. The airline needs
to decide what to do next.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Move the prototype to production to assess the impact on the enterprise architecture.
B. Identify a governance method to define policies and procedures for sharing the ESB infrastructure.
C. Align an SOA project with a business initiative and select high-value services through process analysis.
D. Add a process server to the infrastructure to provide a means to use the passenger information
services.
Answer: C

IBM   000-667   000-667   000-667

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Code d'Examen: 000-M12
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Workplace Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

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NO.1 Can DataStage and Information Server access mainframe (zOS) data sources such as IMS, VSAM,
Model 204 and ADABAS (among others)?
A. No.DataStage can only access local flat files.
B. Yes.DataStage can access any remote source using all the Connectivity capabilities of
Federation Server and Classic Federation, or via connections to partner offerings.
C. No.DataStage can only read data files via ODBC.
D. No.DataStage can only read data files via JDBC.
Answer: B

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NO.2 There are many ways to exploit the concept of re-use with DataStage/QualityStage. Which feature
below describes a graphical unit of re-use that can be included in any Job?
A. Graphical Job Sequencer
B. Performance monitor
C. Stage palette
D. Shared Containers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is NOT a benefit of Information Analyzer?
A. Gain insight into your data source
B. Reduce hardware requirements
C. Improve personnel productivity
D. Reduce the time to profile data by 70%
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following cannot be published by WebSphere Information Services Director (WISD)
as a Service?
A. DataStage Jobs
B. Teradata Stored Procedures
C. Federation Queries
D. QualityStage Jobs
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does Information Analyzer share meta data and results with the rest of Information Server?
A. Emails are automatically sent to all Information Server users
B. An html page is generated with analysis results
C. Analysis results and notes from data profiling research are saved in themeta data layer of Information
Server and are available for viewing in DataStage and other Information Server tools
D. Automatic RSS publication of analysis results
Answer: C

IBM   000-M12   000-M12

NO.6 What function does Business Glossary NOT help enterprises achieve?
A. Agree on common business terminology
B. Assign data stewards to manage business terms
C. Create a repository for ALL their corporatemeta data
D. Classify technical objects using accepted terms and definitions
Answer: C

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NO.7 QualityStage delivers higher match rates than other products in the industry for de-duplication and
matching. What is the unique capability of QualityStage that helps QualityStage deliver these higher
match rates?
A. Statistical Pattern Counting
B. Bit level character comparisons
C. Probabalistic Record Linkage
D. Phrase parsing
Answer: C

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NO.8 Does DataStage have the ability to run a process across multiple machines in a GRID?
A. No.DataStage can only be run on single SMP machines with multiple CPUs
B. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid of homogeneous environments
C. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid that includes Windows, Unix and mainframe processors
D. No.DataStage only runs on one CPU
Answer: B

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NO.9 Are DataStage and QualityStage integrated at the interface, metadata, and engine levels?
A. No. They are only integrated at runtime.
B. Yes. They are integrated for developers at design time, at the engine for runtime, and at themeta data
level for impact analysis and data lineage.
C. No. They still have separate developer interfaces.
D. No. They can invoke each other at run time at the engine level, but have a separatemeta data model.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the goal of the various application Packs that exist for Information Server?
A. Better pricing and installation options
B. To accelerate team development
C. To enhance of source code management
D. To support loading/unloading and data integration with popular packaged applications such as
Oracle Financials, SAP, and JD Edwards
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-806
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state
of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

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NO.4 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

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NO.5 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is
generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-019
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 Which permission is required before the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installation runs in a
non-global zone on a Solaris environment?
A. PRIV_PROC_EXEC
B. PRIV_PROC_FORK
C. PRIV_SYS_NETCONFIG
D. PRIV_NET_RAWACCESS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which product is affected by installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on UNIX as a root user
on the same server?
A. CCMDB
B. OMNIbus
C. Tivoli Integrated Portal
D. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-019   certification 000-019   000-019 examen

NO.3 Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which browser version is supported in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for a successful installer
launchpad?
A. Safari 3.0
B. Firefox 2.0
C. Internet Explorer 5
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: B

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019

NO.5 Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose
two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Before installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on 64-bit Windows 2008 or 2003 Server,
which version of Windows Installer is required for a successful installation?
A. Version 4.0
B. Version 4.1
C. Version 4.4
D. Version 4.5
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose
three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

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NO.8 Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three databases are supported for storing the topology database within IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 8.2
B. Oracle 10g
C. MySQL 4.0
D. MySQL 5.0
E. MSSQL 2000
F. PostgreSQL 8.3
Answer: ABD

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NO.10 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration
requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

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NO.12 What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on
the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

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NO.14 On an AIX 5.3 system where there is no supported Web browser installed, what are the two correct
commands to run the installer in order to complete a custom IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition
installation in a supported mode? (Choose two.)
A. <path to installation files>/install.sh
B. <path to installation files>/launchpad.sh
C. <path to installation files>/launchpad.exe
D. <path to installation files>/install.sh i console
E. <path to installation files>/install.sh f <path to silent install file>
Answer: DE

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NO.15 Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 What is the primary issue with installing and running IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition as a root
user on a single AIX system?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. There are no issues related to installing as root on AIX.
C. Some Tivoli components cannot be installed as root user on AIX.
D. There are X-windows libraries that cannot be run as a root user without creating a security problem.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of
which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread
across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100
interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)
based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A

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NO.20 When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager)
deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli
Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B

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NO.21 When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

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NO.22 Which post installation task needs to be performed to allow a non-root user to start IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) when it has been installed as root on a UNIX system?
A. Tivoli Network Manager cannot be installed as the root user.
B. Re-install as a non-root user and run the processes as non-root.
C. Run the appropriate script to set permissions for the non-root user.
D. No tasks need to be performed as the system always runs as non-root.
Answer: C

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NO.23 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a
custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

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NO.24 Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so
that data in reports can be viewed?
A. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a
new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-019   000-019

NO.26 Where is the Netcool Common Information Model (NCIM) database created with the script,
'create_db2_database.sh NCIM ncim'?
A. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 and the user ncim
B. the NCIM database on the local DB2 and the user db2inst1
C. the NCIM database on the local DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
D. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-019   000-019 examen

NO.27 Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using
the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB

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NO.28 When deploying IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition, what is a valid consideration when
determining if the installation method should be launchpad?
A. whether the deployment requires a custom or default installation
B. the location of the Netcool Common Information Model database
C. whether $NCHOME has been defined as an environmental variable
D. whether the server meets the prerequisites for a launchpad installation
Answer: D

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NO.29 In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network
Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-737
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.2 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.3 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

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NO.4 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.5 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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NO.6 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

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NO.7 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

IBM   000-737   000-737   000-737 examen   000-737 examen

NO.8 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system parameters.
Answer:A D

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NO.10 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

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NO.11 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

IBM examen   certification 000-737   000-737   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.12 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.13 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

IBM examen   000-737   000-737   000-737

NO.14 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

IBM   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.15 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

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NO.17 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

IBM examen   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.18 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

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NO.19 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.20 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as "STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.21 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.22 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

IBM   000-737   000-737   000-737   000-737

NO.23 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.25 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.26 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

certification IBM   certification 000-737   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.27 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

IBM   000-737 examen   000-737   000-737   000-737   000-737

NO.28 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

IBM   certification 000-737   000-737   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.29 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.30 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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Code d'Examen: 000-135
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Host Access Transformation Services (HATS) v7.1)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 In the Lotus Expeditor Client environment, HATS rich client applications can be managed, deployed,
and controlled in a number of ways. What is NOT a supported environment?
A. Lotus Expeditor Server, which contains the Device Manager Server component
B. WebSphere Portal, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to applications
C. Eclipse update site, which provides provisioning and updating using a standard Web server
D. WebSphere Application Server, which allows for centrally-administered, role-based access to
applications
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-135   000-135

NO.2 On which environment(s) are HATS Web applications, developed using the HATS Toolkit, supported to
be deployed and run?
A. Eclipse RCP and Lotus(R) Expeditor Client
B. IBM WebSphere application server production runtime
C. IBM and non-IBM Portal Server production runtime
D. any J2EE-compatible application server available on the market
Answer: B

IBM   000-135 examen   000-135 examen   000-135

NO.3 To help with debugging HATS applications on a test or production system, a display terminal window
can be displayed. Which statement is FALSE about the display terminal window?
A. Turning on the display terminal option can seriously affect performance or overload the server.
B. The display terminal functions can be turned on using the extended HATS application button
Standard.?
C. It is possible to interact with the host application using the host screen in the terminal window.
D. The display terminal functions can be turned on for any new host connections by selecting the Enable
Display Terminal box on the Trace Settings panel.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What would most improve end user response time for a HATS application?
A. decreasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
B. using fast 3270e with a host supporting contention resolution
C. increasing the timer of the screen settling algorithm
D. using fast 3270e with a 5250 host
Answer: B

IBM   000-135 examen   000-135   000-135 examen   000-135 examen   000-135

NO.5 How might a developer use a shared global variable?
A. share a variable value between the sessions of two different users
B. share a variable value that can be used in a future session
C. share a variable value between two different applications being accessed by a single user
D. share a variable with a non-HATS Web application
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 70-693
Nom d'Examen: Microsoft (Windows Server 2008R2, Virtualization Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 Your environment includes the virtual machines (VMs) shown in the following table. server Server1
and Server2 communicate with each other over a Hyper-V private virtual network. End-user connectivity
to the application server is provided by an external virtual network. You need to monitor network traffic
between Server1 and Server2 so that you can create a baseline to appropriately set thresholds for future
monitoring.
Which counter should you monitor?
A. Network Interface Bytes Total/sec
B. Hyper-V Virtual Switch Bytes/sec
C. Hyper-V Virtual Network Adapter Bytes Sent/sec
D. Hyper-V Virtual Network Adapter Bytes Received/sec
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your company has 300 portable computers that run Microsoft Office Enterprise 2007. The company
participates in the Microsoft Software Assurance program. You are designing a solution that enables
remote employees to use Office and to access their Home folders. You plan to implement a Remote
Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure, and you plan to deploy Office Enterprise 2007 as a virtual
application on the RDS servers.
You need to choose the appropriate licenses. Which licensing solution should you choose?
A. 1 Office Enterprise 2007 license and 300 App-V for Terminal Services licenses
B. 300 Office Enterprise 2007 licenses and 300 App-V for Terminal Services licenses
C. 300 Office Enterprise 2007 licenses and 300 Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) licenses
D. 300 Windows Server 2008 R2 RDS client access licenses (CALs)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your company has a main office in New York and branch offices in Chicago and Los Angeles. You plan
to use Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) 4.5 with SP1. You install an Application Virtualization
Management Server in the New York office. You need to provide application virtualization with active
upgrade support in the Chicago and Los Angeles offices. You must design your App-V solution so that it
minimizes WAN traffic.
What should you do?
A. Install Application Virtualization Streaming Servers in the Chicago and Los Angeles offices.
B. Install Application Virtualization Management Servers in the Chicago and Los Angeles offices.
C. Install the Application Virtualization \CONTENT folder on file shares in the Chicago and Los Angeles
offices.
D. Install the Application Virtualization \CONTENT folder on IIS 7 servers in the Chicago and Los Angeles
offices.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You configure a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V server with several virtual machines (VMs). A
software vendor releases a software update for an application that runs on only one of the VMs. You need
to plan a strategy that enables you to install and test the update without interrupting business operations
and without corrupting data.
What should you do first?
A. Export the VM.
B. Create a snapshot of the affected VM.
C. Enable the Windows Volume Snapshot Service on the affected VM.
D. Enable the Windows Volume Snapshot Service on the Hyper-V server.
Answer: B

Microsoft examen   70-693   70-693

NO.5 You have a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V failover cluster. You manage the cluster by using
Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2. You plan to monitor the environment
by using Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007. You need to identify when Hyper-V server
load exceeds specific CPU and memory thresholds, and you must rebalance the environment
accordingly.
What should you do?
A. Configure the Placement settings to maximize resources for each of the Hyper-V servers
B. Configure Performance and Resource Optimization (PRO) to automatically implement PRO tips
C. Configure the Placement settings for CPU and Memory as Very Important for each of the Hyper-V
servers
D. Install the Windows Server Operating System Management Pack for Operations Manager 2007, and
set the thresholds
Answer: B

Microsoft   certification 70-693   70-693   70-693   certification 70-693

NO.6 Your network includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Each Hyper-V server runs multiple
virtual machines (VMs). You need to detect performance issues and generate an alert when Hyper-V
server load exceeds specific thresholds.
Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft System Center Capacity Planner 2007
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2008 R2
Answer: B

Microsoft   70-693   70-693

NO.7 All servers on your company's network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows
Vista.
The company is planning to virtualize an application that is CPU intensive and that runs only on Windows
Vista and Windows 7. You need to recommend a virtualization solution that minimizes the use of CPU
resources on the server.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: B

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NO.8 You have a two-node Hyper-V failover cluster that uses SAN storage. You are designing storage for a
new virtualization environment by using Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to deploy five virtual
machines (VMs) per logical unit number (LUN). You need to be able to perform a live migration of a single
VM while the other VMs continue to run on the host server.
What should you do?
A. Use Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs).
B. Use fixed disks on the SAN storage.
C. Boot the virtual machines from iSCSI LUNs.
D. Use dynamically expanding disks on an iSCSI LUN.
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   70-693   certification 70-693

NO.9 You are designing a test environment that uses Hyper-V. The test environment must enable testers to
perform the following tasks: Quickly switch between running states. Re-create a specific state or condition.
Return the state of the environment to a specific point in time. Recover from a faulty software update by
using the fastest method. You need to ensure that the test environment meets the requirements.
What are two possible tools that you can use to achieve this goal? (Each correct Answer presents a
complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Hyper-V Manager
B. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2007 with SP1
C. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (SCCM) 2007 with SP3
Answer: AC

Microsoft   certification 70-693   certification 70-693   70-693

NO.10 Your virtual environment includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. The test and
development teams are developing a distributed application. The application requires a domain controller,
a server that runs Microsoft SQL Server, an application server, and a client computer. The application
uses pass-through authentication. You need to ensure that at the time of a failure, the test team can
reproduce the error and provide the application in the state in which it existed when the error occurred to
the development team for continued analysis. You must achieve this goal while minimizing storage
requirements.
What should you do?
A. Snapshot and export all servers.
B. Snapshot and export only the application server.
C. Snapshot the application server, and back up the SQL Server database.
D. Snapshot and export only the domain controller and the client computer.
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   70-693   certification 70-693

NO.11 All servers in your environment run Windows Server 2008 R2. You are planning a Microsoft System
Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2 Self-Service Portal deployment. You need to ensure
that members of the Security Compliance group can create new virtual machines (VMs). You install the
VMM 2008 R2 Self Service Portal and add the Security Compliance group to the Self Service host group.
What should you do next?
A. Assign the computer accounts for all Hyper-V servers the Read permission to the library share and
NTFS folders. Grant the Log on as a service right to the Security Compliance group.
B. Assign the service account for the Hyper-V Image Management Service the Read permission to the
library share and NTFS folders. Grant the Log on as a service right to the service account for the Hyper-V
Image Management Service.
C. Configure the self-service user role to create new VMs. Add the Security Compliance group to the
self-service user role. Grant members of the self-service user role access to the library share.
D. Configure constrained delegation for the Security Compliance group on the library server. Grant the
Log on as a service right to the service account for the Hyper-V Image Management Service.
Answer: C

Microsoft examen   70-693   70-693

NO.12 You deploy a Microsoft Hyper-V Server 2008 R2 server. You will back up the server by using Microsoft
System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM) 2007 with SP1. Your virtual environment includes the
virtual machines (VMs) shown in the following table. You need to configure the DPM protection group to
minimize server downtime during business hours and to provide the best recovery point objective (RPO).
What should you do?
A. Set synchronizations to run every 15 minutes during business hours.
B. Set synchronizations to run every 30 minutes during business hours.
C. Set synchronizations to run every 45 minutes during business hours.
D. Perform express full backups every 60 minutes during non-business hours.
Answer: A

Microsoft   70-693 examen   70-693   70-693 examen

NO.13 You deploy two Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You manage the servers by using
Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2. You need to ensure that you can
restore virtual machines (VMs) in the event of a hardware failure.
What should you do?
A. Use a PowerShell script to create a snapshot of each VM. Run the script every 60 minutes on each
Hyper-V server.
B. Use a PowerShell script to create a checkpoint of each VM. Run the script every 60 minutes on each
Hyper-V server.
C. Use a PowerShell script to pause, export, and start each VM, and then to copy the export to the
opposite Hyper-V server. Run the script once per day on each Hyper-V server.
D. Use a PowerShell script to shut down, export, and start each VM, and then to copy the export to the
opposite Hyper-V server. Run the script once per day on each Hyper-V server.
Answer: D

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NO.14 All servers on your network run Windows Server 2008 R2. You plan to configure multiple highly
available virtual machines (HAVMs) on a Hyper-V failover cluster. You need to recommend a storage
solution that supports high availability.
Which storage solution should you recommend?
A. a direct-attached storage (DAS) device
B. a multipath serial-attached SCSI drive with a witness disk
C. a multipath Fibre Channel logical unit number (LUN) with a witness disk
D. a multipath iSCSI logical unit number (LUN) with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSVs)
Answer: D

Microsoft   70-693   70-693

NO.15 All servers on your company's network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All users have thin client
computers. You need to recommend a virtualization solution that allows users to use applications that run
only on Windows 7.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: C

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NO.16 Client computers on your network run either Windows Vista or Windows 7. You plan to use Microsoft
Application Virtualization (App-V) 4.5 with SP1 as an application virtualization platform. You need to
virtualize applications by using mount point installations (MNT).
What should you do?
A. Configure the App-V Sequencer to have two partitions.
B. Configure the App-V Sequencer on a Windows 7 client computer.
C. Configure virtualized applications to check for updates during installation.
D. On the reference computer, install all software that typically runs on client computers.
Answer: A

Microsoft examen   70-693 examen   70-693   70-693 examen   70-693 examen

NO.17 You are planning to deploy two Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You need to design the
storage of VHD files for maximum security.
What should you do?
A. Store the VHD files on a dedicated NTFS volume.
B. Store unencrypted VHD files on a volume that uses Windows BitLocker drive encryption.
C. Encrypt the VHD files by using EFS on a volume that uses Windows BitLocker drive encryption.
D. Encrypt the VHD files by using EFS on a volume that does not use Windows BitLocker drive
encryption.
Answer: B

Microsoft   70-693   70-693 examen   70-693   70-693 examen

NO.18 All servers on your company's network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows
Vista.
The company is planning to virtualize an application that runs only on Windows 2000 Professional. You
need to recommend a virtualization solution that enables users to run the virtualized application while
their computers are disconnected from the corporate network.
Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: D

certification Microsoft   70-693 examen   70-693   70-693

NO.19 You have a Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V failover cluster. You manage the virtual environment by
using Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) 2008 R2. You need to find out whether
the failover cluster is properly configured to support highly available virtual machines (VMs).
Which PowerShell cmdlet should you run?
A. Test-Cluster
B. Enable-VMHost
C. Get-VMHostRating
D. Test-ClusterResourceFailure
Answer: A

certification Microsoft   70-693   70-693

NO.20 Your company uses Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers to provide a Microsoft Virtual Desktop
Infrastructure (VDI) environment. Maintenance tasks result in reduced capacity on several servers. You
need to prevent servers from experiencing performance problems during maintenance.
What should you do?
A. Set the user logon mode on every server to Enabled.
B. Create additional DNS A records for the servers, and use DNS round-robin.
C. In Remote Desktop Connection Broker, assign a lower weight to the servers that will undergo
maintenance.
D. In Remote Desktop Connection Broker, assign a higher weight to the servers that will undergo
maintenance.
Answer: C

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