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Code d'Examen: CISSP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
Questions et réponses: 2137 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.3 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.7 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.9 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.10 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.15 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.16 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.19 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.22 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.24 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.26 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.30 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

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NO.5 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-732
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 for z/OS Database Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 A DB2 V9 system that is in New Function Mode:
A.cannot fall back.
B.can fall back to Compatibility Mode.
C.can fall back to New Function Mode*.
D.can fall back to Compatibility Mode*.
Correct:D

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NO.2 If an object is created statically by a role within a trusted context and the ROLE AS OBJECT
OWNER clause is specified, who becomes the object owner when executing the package?
A.The role
B.The schema name
C.The owner keyword
D.The current SQLID (if set)
Correct:A

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NO.3 A DBA wishes to audit all access to the non-audited table OWNER.EMPLOYEE. Assuming no
audit traces are started, which of the following steps are needed to audit access to this table?
A.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (5)
B.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5)
C.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE AUDIT ALL
D.-START TRACE AUDIT CLASS (4, 5) and ALTER TABLE OWNER.EMPLOYEE DATA CAPTURE
CHANGES
Correct:C

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NO.4 There are dynamic SQL statements running in a subsystem that need to have their host
variables reoptimized at run-time, however the distribution of the values does not change very
much between execution. What is the most optimal bind parameter for these statements?
A.REOPT(NONE)
B.REOPT(ONCE)
C.REOPT(VARS)
D.REOPT(ALWAYS)
Correct:B

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NO.5 Given the following RUNSTATS utility statement: RUNSTATS TABLESPACE
DB2CERTDB.MYTBLSPC1 TABLE (MYTABLE1) COLUMN(ALL) INDEX REPORT YES UPDATE ALL
HISTORY ALL which of the following statements is true?
A.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of all indexes on table MYTABLE1.
B.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index on table MYTABLE1.
C.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on all columns of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
D.Cardinality statistics will only be collected on the first column of each index associated with table space
MYTBLSPC1.
Correct:D

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NO.6 An application has been running in production for a long time. The size of the objects involved
has not changed, but the application is running much slower than in the beginning. When should
the DBA consider manually REBINDing the application?
A.After REORGing the objects with inline statistics.
B.When dynamic SQL is used, but only after REORG and RUNSTATS has been performed.
C.Actually it is NOT recommended to perform manual rebinds but rather have DB2 perform automatic
rebinds.
D.If the size of the objects has not changed after gathering RUNSTATS data, the access path is very
unlikely to change, and therefore no REBIND is needed.
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which of the following buffer pool thresholds CANNOT be changed by the DBA?
A.Deferred write threshold (DWQT)
B.Immediate write threshold (IWTH)
C.Vertical deferred write threshold (VDWQT)
D.Virtual buffer pool assisting parallel sequential threshold (VPXPSEQT)
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which of the following is the correct configuration in a two way DB2 datasharing group?
A.MVSA (DB2A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, active log B, workfile B) Shared BSDS and
catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
B.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active Log B, workfile B)
Shared catalog and directory Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
C.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log A, workfile A, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
D.MVSA (DB2A, BSDS A, active log A, workfile A, catalog & directory A) MVSB (DB2B, BSDS B, active
log B, workfile B, catalog & directory B) Coupling facility one Sysplex timer one
Correct:B

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NO.9 Which of the following DSNZPARMs is necessary to influence access path selection for certain
queries?
A.STDSQL
B.OPTHINTS
C.PARTKEYU
D.DESCSTAT
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which parameter in WLM Application Environment controls the # of concurrent stored
procedures that can run in that particular environment?
A.NUMSRB
B.NUMTHR
C.NUMCTK
D.NUMTCB
Correct:D

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NO.11 Which of the following RACF profiles would be used to allow IMS to access DB2 DSN1?
A.DSN1.IMS
B.DSNR.IMS
C.DSN1.MASS
D.DSN1.SASS
Correct:C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the following catalog health query? SELECT BNAME, BCREATOR,
BTYPE, DNAME FROM SYSIBM.SYSPLANDEP PD WHERE BTYPE IN ('T', 'V', 'A') AND NOT EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM SYSIBM.SYSTABLES WHERE CREATOR = PD.BCREATOR AND NAME =
PD.BNAME AND TYPE = PD.BTYPE);
A.For every row in SYSTABLES that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should be
a corresponding row in SYSPLANDEP.
B.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table, view, or alias, there should
be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
C.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, view, or a table that
has been altered, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
D.For every row in SYSPLANDEP that indicates a dependency upon a table space, a table with a
VARCHAR column, or alias, there should be a corresponding row in SYSTABLES.
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.13 A DBA has been required by a new company policy to implement a new DB2 security method.
The company would like to separate the authorization IDs that can execute plans and packages
from the authorization IDs that can create new plans and packages. Which of the following explicit
system privileges allows the user to create new plans and packages without being able to also
execute them?
A.BINDADD
B.CREATEIN
C.BINDAGENT
D.CREATEDBA
Correct:C

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.14 A DBA was examining the Log Statistics, Log Activity section in the OMEGAMON Performance
Expert Tool and noticed a large value in the field UNAVAILABLE OUTPUT LOG BUFF. This is an
important and critical performance metric. What does this performance metric mean?
A.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too large so memory was not
utilized and wasted.
B.The active logs were not stripped by DFSMS and the active log data sets have to be processed
sequentially so many times.
C.The active log data sets were not placed on different volumes to reduce contention so a large amount of
I/O activity showed up in the OUTPUT BUFFER field.
D.The OUTPUT BUFFER field of installation panel DSNTIPL was specified too small so application has to
wait while DB2 was busy writing the Active log data sets.
Correct:D

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NO.15 An end-user indicates that the DRDA client application accessing DB2 for z/OS is very slow.
However, other local applications accessing the same tables are running fine. What would
indicate that this could be a DB2 problem?
A.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 CPU time minus non-nested CLASS 2 CPU time. If the value is high,
it suggests a problem in the DDF address space.
B.Investigate the CLASS 3 suspension time. As class 3 time includes the time that DB2 spends
sending/receiving network messages, a high value is a possible indication that the network is
experiencing a slow-down.
C.Calculate the non-nested CLASS 1 Elapsed time (ET) minus non-nested CLASS 2 ET. If the value is
high, this can only be caused by spending most time in the application, and therefore the application
should be investigated.
D.Check to see if the DB2 remote connection can become inactive at commit (Type 2 inactive). If not, this
leads to a high non-nested CLASS 1 ET and is likely the cause of the performance problem. Inactive
connections will use less CPU than threads that stay active all the time.
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which statement best describes how multi-row fetch improves performance?
A.It reduces the amount of programming required.
B.It reduces the number of SQL statements issued.
C.It reduces the amount of data sent over a network.
D.It reduces the amount of I/O required to read a table.
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.17 At which of the following times is the access control authorization routine (DSNX@XAC)
invoked?
A.At DB2 startup.
B.When executing a DB2 GRANT statement.
C.When DB2 has cached authorization information.
D.During any authorization check if NO was specified in the USE PROTECTION field of the DSNTIPP
panel.
Correct:A

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.18 An audit trace shows that TSO user TSOID1, with DBADM authority, is continually attempting to
update a table in DB2 subsystem DSN1 that is not supposed to be updated. Which of the following
will prevent access to the DB2 subsystem?
A.REVOKE DBADM FROM TSOID1
B.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.TSO to NONE
C.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to READ
D.Change TSOID1's access to DSNR resource class DSN1.BATCH to NONE
Correct:D

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.19 A DBA needs to use the DSN command processor to delete DB2 packages that are no longer
needed. Which of the following choices is correct for the DBA to use?
A.SPUFI or QMF with the DROP statement
B.FREE Package (..)
C.DROP Package (..)
D.DROP PLAN () PKLIST (..)
Correct:B

IBM   certification 000-732   000-732 examen

NO.20 A company uses TRUSTED CONTEXT "ERP1" and ROLE "ERP_ROLE" as a security mechanism
to limit security exposure for an application. All the DB2 objects (databases, table spaces, tables,
indexes, views, plans and packages) have been created by that ROLE. The ROLE "ERP_ROLE"
has been assigned to User ID "DBA01" in order to perform DBA related tasks. When the user
"DBA01" leaves the company, the authorization ID is removed. Which of the following statements
are correct? (Select two answers)
A.None of these DB2 objects need to be recreated to re-grant the privileges.
B.The related plans and packages have to be recreated and the privileges re-granted.
C.When removing user "DBA01" privileges, none of these DB2 objects need to be dropped.
D.Only the related databases, table spaces, tables, indexes and views need to be recreated and the
privileges re-granted.
E.To remove the privileges of user "DBA01" on these related plans and packages, they have to be
dropped and as a result all associated privileges are revoked.
Correct:A C

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Code d'Examen: 000-415
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere IIS DataStage Enterprise Edition v7.5)
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 Job run details for a specific invocation of a multi-instance job can be viewed by which two
clients? (Choose two.)
A.dsjob
B.dsjobinfo
C.DataStage Director
D.DataStage Manager
Correct:A C

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NO.2 The last two steps of a job are an Aggregator stage using the Hash method and a Sequential File
stage with a Collector type of Auto that creates a comma delimited output file for use by a
common spreadsheet program. The job runs a long time because data volumes have increased.
Which two changes would improve performance? (Choose two.)
A.Change the Sequential stage to use a Sort Merge collector on the aggregation keys.
B.Change the Sequential stage to a Data Set stage to allow the write to occur in parallel.
C.Change the Aggregator stage to use the sort method. Hash and sort on the aggregation keys.
D.Change the Aggregator stage to a Transformer stage and use stage variables to accumulate the
aggregations.
Correct:A C

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NO.3 Which command can be used to execute DataStage jobs from a UNIX shell script?
A.osh
B.dsjob
C.DSRunJob
D.DSExecute
Correct:B

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NO.4 Click the Task button. You have been asked to improve the performance of a job. A consultant
has convinced your manager that sorts and partitions are major contributors to the performance
issues being experienced since they are specified as "auto". Both the aggregation and join are
done on Zip (postal) code. Place the appropriate sort/aggregation specifications on the links.
Correct:
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.5 Which statement is true about Aggregator Sort and Hash methods when the
APT_NO_SORT_INSERTION environment variable is set to TRUE?
A.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have the partition sorted by
the group key.
B.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage requires the data to have been partition sorted by
the group key.
C.If you select the Sort method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
performing the aggregation.
D.If you select the Hash method, the Aggregator stage will partition sort the data by the group key before
building a hash table in memory.
Correct:B

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NO.6 A job has two input sources that need to be combined. Each input source exceeds available
physical memory. The files are in the same format and must be combined using a key value. It is
guaranteed that there will be at least one match. Given the above scenario, which stage would
consume the least amount of physical memory?
A.Merge
B.Funnel
C.Lookup
D.Transformer
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.7 Which two can be implemented in a Job Sequence using job parameters? (Choose two.)
A.All options of the Start Loop Activity stage.
B.Name of a job to be executed by a Job Activity stage.
C.A command to be executed by a Routine Activity stage.
D.The body of the email notification activity using the user interface.
Correct:A C

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.8 Which three are valid ways within a Job Sequence to pass parameters to Activity stages?
(Choose three.)
A.Routine Activity stage
B.Sequencer Activity stage
C.UserVariables Activity stage
D.ExecCommand Activity stage
E.Nested Condition Activity stage
Correct:A C D

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NO.9 Which two tasks will create DataStage projects? (Choose two.)
A.Install the DataStage engine.
B.Copy a project in DataStage Administrator.
C.Add new projects from DataStage Administrator.
D.Export and import a DataStage project from DataStage Manager.
Correct:A C

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.10 Establishing a consistent naming standard for link names is useful in which two ways?
(Choose two.)
A.using less memory at job runtime
B.specifying link order without having to specify stage properties to generate correct results
C.improving developer productivity and quality by distinguishing link names within stage editors
D.easing use of captured job statistics (eg. row counts in an XML file) by processes or users outside of
DataStage
Correct:C D

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.11 How does a Join stage process an Inner join?
A.It transfers records from the input data sets whose key columns contain equal values to the output data
set.
B.It transfers all values from the left data set but transfers values from the right data set and intermediate
data sets only when key columns match.
C.It transfers all values from the right data set and transfers values from the left data set and intermediate
data sets only where key columns match.
D.It transfers records in which the contents of the key columns are equal from the left and right input data
sets to the output data set. It also transfers records whose key columns contain unequal values from both
input data sets to the output data set.
Correct:A

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NO.12 What is the purpose of the uv command in a UNIX DataStage server?
A.Start and stop the DataStage engine.
B.Report DataStage client connections.
C.Cleanup resources from a failed DataStage job.
D.Provide read access to a DataStage EE configuration file.
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.13 Which statement about job parameter usage is true?
A.You can use environment variables to set parameter values linked to the Job Sequence.
B.You can change the parameter values in an initialization file linked to a Job Sequence .ini file.
C.Changes to the job parameters in the Designer do not require a recompile to be applied to the job.
D.You can change job parameters while a job is running and the changes will immediately be applied
mid-job.
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.14 Which three are valid trigger expressions in a stage in a Job Sequence? (Choose three.)
A.Unconditional
B.Equality(Conditional)
C.Custom(Conditional)
D.Difference(Conditional)
E.ReturnValue(Conditional)
Correct:A C E

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.15 In which two scenarios should a sparse lookup be used in place of a normal lookup to retrieve
data from an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.When the Oracle database is on the same system as the DataStage server.
B.When the number of input rows is significantly larger than the number of rows in the lookup table.
C.When the number of input rows is significantly smaller than the number of rows in the lookup table.
D.A database function that returns the current value of an Oracle object is required as part of the result set.
Correct:C D

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.16 Which two statements about performance tuning a DataStage EE environment are true?
(Choose two.)
A.Overall job design has a minimal impact in actual real-world performance.
B.Only adjust buffer tuning parameters after examining other performance factors.
C.A single, optimized configuration file will yield best performance for all jobs and be easier to administer.
D.Performance tuning is an iterative process - adjust one item at a time and examine the results in
isolation.
Correct:B D

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.17 A customer is interested in selecting the right RDBMS environment to run DataStage
Enterprise Edition to solve a multi-file and relational database data merge. The customer realizes
the value of running in parallel and is interested in knowing which RDBMS stage will match the
internal data partitioning of a given RDBMS. Which RDBMS stage will satisfy the customer's
request?
A.ODBC Enterprise
B.Oracle Enterprise
C.Sybase Enterprise
D.DB2/UDB Enterprise
Correct:D

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.18 An XML file is being processed by the XML Input stage. How can repetition elements be
identified on the stage?
A.Set the "Key" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
B.Check the "Repetition Element Required" box on the output link tab.
C.Set the "Nullable" property for the column on the output link to "Yes".
D.No special settings are required. XML Input stage automatically detects the repetition element from the
XPath expression.
Correct:A

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.19 Which two statements are true of the column data types used in Orchestrate schemas? (Choose
two.)
A.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are varchar and integer.
B.Examples of Orchestrate schema column data types are int32 and string [max=30].
C.Orchestrate schema column data types are the same as those used in DataStage stages.
D.OSH import operators are needed to convert data read from sequential files into schema types.
Correct:B D

IBM examen   000-415 examen   000-415   certification 000-415

NO.20 Which statement describes a process for capturing a COBOL copybook from a z/OS system?
A.Select the COBOL copybook using the Browse button and capture the COBOL copybook with Manager.
B.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in binary and capture the metadata through
Manager.
C.FTP the COBOL copybook to the client workstation in text mode and capture the copybook with
Manager.
D.FTP the COBOL copybook to the server platform in text mode and capture the metadata through
Manager.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: 000-733
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Certified Application Developer-DB29)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 An application running against a DB2 for AIX database needs to execute the following query:SELECT
t2.c2, t1.c3 FROM t1 INNER JOIN t2 ON t1.c1 = t2.c1 If table T1 resides in the DB2 for AIX database and
table T2 resides in a DB2 for i5/OS database, which of the followingDB2 object types must the identifier
T2 represent in order for this SQL statement to run successfully?
A. ALIAS
B. NICKNAME
C. SERVER TABLE
D. TABLE WRAPPER
Answer: B

IBM   000-733   000-733   000-733 examen   certification 000-733

NO.2 Which of the following ADO .NET providers is supported by IBM DB2 Add-ins for Visual Studio?
A. OLE DB .NET Data Provider
B. DB2 Data Provider for .NET
C. ODBC Data Provider for .NET
D. DB2 for i5/OS .NET Provider
Answer: B

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NO.3 If the following code is executed in the order shown:conDB2 As
DB2ConnectionconDB2.ConnectionString =
"Database=samplelx;UID=db2user;PWD=db2pwd;"conDB2.Open() Which of the following statements is
correct?
A. An exception is thrown because the server name has not been specified.
B. An exception is thrown because the server name and the port have not been specified.
C. The execution is successful provided the host name SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local hosts table.
D. The execution is successful provided the database alias SAMPLEX has been previously defined in the
local database catalog.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-733 examen   000-733   certification 000-733

NO.4 A table named ACTIVITY.LOG was created by executing the following statement:CREATE TABLE
activity.log (event VARCHAR(128), date DATE) Then, a stored procedure named ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT
was created by executing the following statement: CREATE PROCEDURE activity.logEvent(IN stmtType
CHAR(1)) LANGUAGE SQLMainBody: BEGIN DECLARE sqlerrm VARCHAR(256) DEFAULT '';
DECLARE ErrorIndicator CHAR(1) DEFAULT 'N';
SQLStmt: BEGIN
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION
BEGIN
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END;
IF stmtType = 'I' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Insert Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'U' THEN
INSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Update Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSEIF stmtType = 'D' THEN I
NSERT INTO activity.log VALUES('Delete Operation Performed.', CURRENT_DATE);
ELSE
SET ErrorIndicator = 'Y';
END IF;
END SQLStmt;
IF ErrorIndicator = 'Y' THEN
SIGNAL SQLSTATE '70000' SET message_text = 'Could not update activity log.';
END IF;
END MainBody
User USER1 has the authority to access/manipulate data in the ACTIVITY.LOG table as well as to invoke
the
procedure ACTIVITY.LOGEVENT. If user USER1 executes the following commands:
CONNECT TO sample USER user1 USING ibmdb2;
DELETE FROM activity.log;
CALL activity.logEvent('i'); What will be the results?
A. The string "Insert Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
B. The string "Update Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
C. The string "Delete Operation Performed." and the system date will be written to the ACTIVITY.LOG
table.
D. The error message 'SQL0438N Application raised error with diagnostic text: "Could not update activity
log.".SQLSTATE=70000' will be generated.
Answer: D

IBM   000-733   000-733   000-733   000-733   000-733

NO.5 After installing the DB2 Express-C 9 it was discovered that the Development Workbench was not
available. What
was the reason for that?
A. It must be installed separately.
B. It is not supported with DB2 Express-C 9.
C. Since it is a licensed tool, it must be purchased from IBM.
D. Review the DB2 installation log for errors. Reinstall DB2 Express-C 9.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An SQL procedure has been developed with several inline SQL PL statements encapsulated in a
dynamic compound SQL statement. The procedure had been tested and performed well. After making a
change to the last SQL statement the procedure not only failed to complete, but did not produce output
from any statements which were not modified. What is the best explanation for this behavior?
A. The dynamic compound SQL is atomic.
B. The procedure doesn't have any savepoints.
C. The procedure has not been correctly re-cataloged.
D. The dynamic compound SQL individual statements are logically dependent on each other.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Parameter markers are NOT permitted for which of the following statements?
A. CALL
B. DELETE C. EXECUTE IMMEDIATE
D. SET CURRENT SQLID
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-733   000-733   certification 000-733

NO.8 A .NET application executes a SQL request invoking the DB2Command.ExecuteReader method and a
syntax errorexception is thrown. Which of the following properties contains the SQLCode for this syntax
error?
A. DB2Error.SQLCode
B. SQLError.SQLCode
C. DB2Exception.SQLCode
D. SQLException.SQLCode
Answer: A

IBM   000-733 examen   000-733   certification 000-733

NO.9 Which of the following restrictions pertains to embedded SQL external routines?
A. Environment variables with names that start with 'DB2' are not allowed.
B. Executing statements or commands that are connection related is not allowed.
C. Environment variable values that were set before the DB2 database manager is started are not
available.
D. When returning result sets from external nested stored procedures, a cursor cannot be opened with
the same name onmultiple nesting levels.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Given the following table definition:CREATE TABLE staff ( id SMALLINT NOT NULL, name
VARCHAR(9), dept SMALLINT, job CHAR(5)) Assuming that the following statements execute
successfully:Dim cmdStaff As DB2Command = cnDb2.CreateCommand() cmdStaff.CommandText =
"SELECT name FROM staff WHERE (job = @job)" Which of the following is the correct way to provide a
value for the parameter marker used?
A. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", CType(5, Char))
B. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add("@job", "Mgr", DB2Type.Char, 5)
C. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", CType(5, Char))
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value = "Mgr"
D. cmdStaff.Parameters.Add(New DB2Parameter("@job", DB2Type.Char, 5)
cmdStaff.Parameters("@job").Value ="Mgr"
Answer: D

IBM   000-733   000-733   certification 000-733

NO.11 Which of the following is the DB2 Data Provider for the .NET class that requires a database connection
to be open?
A. DB2DataSet
B. DB2RecordSet
C. DB2DataReader
D. DB2DataAdapter
Answer: C

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NO.12 Given following table:
EMP
EMPNO NAME DEPTNO SALARY
=====
==== ======
======
0010 JOSH D95 30000
0020 JENNA D98 25000
0030 DYLAN
D95 10000
0040 TRACY D90 33000
and the following trigger definition:CREATE TRIGGER track_chgsAFTER UPDATE OF salary, name,
empno ON emp REFERENCING NEW_TABLE AS ntable FOR EACH STATEMENT MODE
DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC INSERT INTO changes SELECT empno, CURRENT TIMESTAMP FROM
ntable; END; After executing the following SQL statements:DELETE FROM changes; UPDATE emp SET
deptno = 'D98' WHERE deptno = 'D95'; INSERT INTO emp VALUES('0050', 'KEN', 'D90', 35000);
UPDATE emp SET salary = salary - 500 WHERE salary > 35000;UPDATE emp SET salary = salary +
1000 WHERE salary <= 25000;What value will be returned by this query?SELECT count(*) FROM
changes
A. 2
B. 3 C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following SQL statements demonstrates the correct usage of a parameter marker?
A. SELECT ? FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
B. SELECT [] FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
C. SELECT CAST(? AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
D. SELECT CAST([] AS INTEGER) FROM SYSCAT.TABLES
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is a SQL stored procedure which will return a resultset containing ID, NAME,
DEPT and JOB values out of the STAFF table?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set() LANGUAGE SQL BEGIN SELECT id, name, dept, job FROM
staff; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN SELECT id, name,
dept, job FROM staff; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN C1; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE result_set()
LANGUAGE SQL RESULT SETS 1 BEGIN DECLARE c1 CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR SELECT id,
name, dept, job FROM staff; OPEN c1; END
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is a characteristic of an application that uses a Distributed Unit of Work
(DUOW)?
A. A single transaction can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
B. Multiple transactions can only read and/or modify data stored on one database server.
C. A single transaction can read and/or modify data stored across multiple database servers.
D. Multiple transactions can read and/or modify data stored on multiple database servers provided each
transaction only accesses a single server.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Two OLTP applications run concurrently but frequent locking occurs which requires a fix to be applied.
Application A inserts rows into the table T1. Application B submits several queries against the table with a
Cursor Stability isolation level. What would be the best course of action to improve the system's
concurrency and performance?
A. Application B should be changed to access a view of table T1.
B. Application B should be changed to a Read Stability isolation level.
C. Application A should be changed to perform a commit after each INSERT operation.
D. Application A should be changed to include the NOT WITH HOLD clause on each INSERT operation.
Answer: C

IBM   000-733 examen   certification 000-733   000-733

NO.17 Given the following table and view definitions: CREATE TABLE city ( cityid INT GENERATED
ALWAYS AS IDENTITY , city_name CHAR(10), state_code CHAR(2) CHECK(state_code IN
('CA','IL','NY','OH','TX')));CREATE VIEW city_view AS ( SELECT city_name||','||state_code AS fullname
FROM city WHERE state_code NOT IN ('OH','IL')); and the following trigger definition:CREATE
TRIGGER city_viewInput INSTEAD OF INSERT ON city_view REFERENCING NEW AS nFOR EACH
ROW MODE DB2SQLBEGIN ATOMIC DECLARE delim INT;SET delim = LOCATE(',', n.fullname);
INSERT INTO city(city_name,state_code) VALUES(SUBSTR(n.fullname, 1, delim - 1),
SUBSTR(n.fullname, delim + 1, 2));END; If the following SQL statments are executed:INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'San Jose','CA') ; INSERT INTO city_view VALUES('Chicago,IL'); INSERT INTO city
VALUES(DEFAULT,'Detroit','MI'); INSERT INTO city VALUES(DEFAULT,'Austin','TX'); INSERT INTO
city_view VALUES('Denver,CO'); How many rows will be returned by the following query: SELECT *
FROM city
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-733   000-733

NO.18 What is the minimum privilege required to run a User Defined Function (UDF)?
A. CALL
B. EXECUTE
C. SYSCTRL
D. SYSMAINT
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-733   000-733   000-733 examen

NO.19 After executing the following SQL statements: CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1),
PRIMARY KEY(col1)); CREATE TABLE tab2 ( col1 INT ,col2 CHAR(1), FOREIGN KEY (col1)
REFERENCES tab1(col1) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); INSERT INTO tab1
VALUES(1, 'A'); INSERT INTO tab1 VALUES(2, 'B'); INSERT INTO tab2 VALUES(3, 'A'); INSERT INTO
tab2 VALUES(2, 'B'); UPDATE tab1 SET col1 = col1 + 1;DELETE FROM tab1 WHERE col2 = 'B';
What values will be returned by the following SQL query?SELECT col1, col2 FROM tab1 A.COL1 COL2
==== ==== 2 'B'
A. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'B'
B. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A'
C. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 1 'A' 2 'B'
D. COL1 COL2 ==== ==== 2 'A' 3 'B'
Answer: B

IBM   000-733 examen   000-733 examen   000-733

NO.20 Table EMPLOYEE contains the following rows: EMPNO FIRSTNME LASTNAME WORKDEPT
000010.CHRISTINE HAAS A00 000020 MICHAEL THOMPSON B01 000030 SALLY KWAN C01 The
isolation level for Application 1 is set to CS and autocommit is disabled. The isolation level for Application
2 is set to CS and the autocommit is enabled. The following statements are executed in sequence:
Application 1:
DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee ORDER BY empno OPEN C1 FETCH C1
FETCH C1 Application 2:
UPDATE employee SET lastname = 'MILLFORD' WHERE empno = '000020' Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 2 runs with autocommit enabled so no row level locks are
necessary for the update.
B. The UPDATE succeeds because Application 1 holds a row level lock that is compatible with the lock
required by Application 2.
C. The UPDATE fails because Application 1 holds a row level read lock that is in conflict with the lock
required by Application 2.C.
D. The UPDATE fails because the row level locks held by Application 1 have been escalated to table lock
so updates by other connections are disallowed.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-806
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

000-806 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-806.html

NO.1 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-806   000-806   000-806 examen   000-806 examen

NO.2 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-806 examen   000-806   000-806 examen   000-806

NO.3 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

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NO.4 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is
generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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NO.5 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state
of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

IBM   000-806   000-806   000-806   000-806   000-806

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Pass4Test vous promet de vous aider à passer le test Network Appliance NS0-154, vous pouvez télécharger maintenant les Q&As partielles de test Network Appliance NS0-154 en ligne. Il y a encore la mise à jour gratuite pendant un an pour vous. Si vous malheureusement rater le test, votre argent sera 100% rendu.

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Code d'Examen: NS0-154
Nom d'Examen: Network Appliance (Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator)
Questions et réponses: 148 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two commands on the storage system allow you to gather detailed statistics about network
interfaces, including basic information about network connections? (Choose two.)
A.ifstat -a
B.netdiag -n
C.netstat -i
D.sysstat 1
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous SnapMirror?
(Choose three.)
A.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - sync
B.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol - 0-55/5 * * *
C.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync
D.FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync
Answer: ACD

Network Appliance   certification NS0-154   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen   certification NS0-154

NO.3 Which are three characteristics of an iSCSI or FCP SAN implementation? (Choose three.)
A.A LUN can be converted into a VLD.
B.LUNs can be accessed using the FCP protocol.
C.LUNs can be accessed using the iSCSI protocol.
D.Block services are associated with an iSCSI or FCP SAN environment.
Answer: BCD

certification Network Appliance   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154   NS0-154   certification NS0-154

NO.4 Which two commands can be used to enable LUN reservations? (Choose two.)
A.lun create
B.lun map
C.lun reservation set
D.lun set reservation
Answer: AD

Network Appliance   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154

NO.5 NTFS allows file access based on ___________.
A.NT ACLs and SID.
B.NT ACLs and UNIX permissions.
C.SID and password.
D.UNIX permissions.
Answer: A

Network Appliance   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen

NO.6 In a tape environment after a SnapRestore reversion of a volume, incremental backup and restore
operations on the file or volume cannot rely on the timestamps to determine what data needs to be
backed up or restored. Which course of action ensures correct incremental backups?
A.Perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
B.Reboot the storage system to reset timestamps back to their original times before the reversion.
C.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup.
D.Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental backup,
and then perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An iSCSI or FC SAN implementation provides _____ access to LUNs.
A.block
B.file
C.VIIP
D.VLD
Answer: A

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-154   NS0-154   NS0-154   NS0-154

NO.8 Which changes the NDMP password on the Open System SnapVault agent?
A.password
B.password
C.svpasswd
D.svpassword
Answer: D

Network Appliance examen   NS0-154   NS0-154

NO.9 If the security style is set to UNIX, CIFS client file access is determined by ___________ .
A.NT ACLs
B.the last client to set permissions
C.the mapped UNIX UID/GID of the CIFS client and the UNIX file permissions
D.This is not allowed: A CIFS client cannot access files in a path set to a security style of UNIX
Answer: C

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NO.10 To determine the version of Data ONTAP in which a bug has been fixed, use the NOW site _______
utility. (Choose two.)
A.AutoSupport
B.Bugs Online
C.NetApp Diagnostics
D.Release Comparison
E.System Configuration Guide
Answer: BD

Network Appliance   certification NS0-154   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154

NO.11 Which three protocols can coexist on a NetApp storage system? (Choose three.)
A.CIFS
B.DAFS
C.DFS
D.FCP
E.NFS
Answer: ADE

Network Appliance examen   certification NS0-154   certification NS0-154

NO.12 Which three items are NFS resources for export? (Choose three.)
A.aggregate
B.directory/qtree
C.file
D.subnet
E.volume
Answer: BCE

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NO.13 Which two will allow you to read and analyze a packet trace file generated by the storage system?
(Choose two.)
A.Eternal View
B.Netmon
C.pktt
D.WireShark
Answer: BD

Network Appliance examen   NS0-154   NS0-154

NO.14 Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode supports SMB 2.0 in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen

NO.15 What utility on the storage system will allow you to capture network packet information?
A.netstats
B.pktt
C.snoop
D.traceroute
Answer: B

certification Network Appliance   certification NS0-154   NS0-154

NO.16 Host multi-pathing describes a _________ solution that has at least two distinct _________ paths to a
LUN.
A.FC or IP SAN, physical
B.FC or IP SAN, virtual
C.FC SAN, virtual
D.token ring, physical
Answer: A

Network Appliance   NS0-154   certification NS0-154   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154

NO.17 To configure a storage system as a member of a Windows active directory domain, the time on the
storage system must be set to be within plus or minus five minutes of the time on the domain controller.
A.True
B.False
Answer: A

Network Appliance   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154

NO.18 Which three licenses are required for fabric-attached MetroCluster? (Choose three.)
A.Cluster
B.Cluster_remote
C.Syncmirror_local
D.Syncmirror_fabric
E.Syncmirror_remote
Answer: ABC

Network Appliance   NS0-154   NS0-154 examen   NS0-154   certification NS0-154   NS0-154 examen

NO.19 Which set of protocols provide block-level access to NetApp storage?
A.CIFS and NFS
B.HTTP and FTP
C. iSCSI and FCP
D.SNA and RPC
Answer: C

Network Appliance   NS0-154   NS0-154

NO.20 For automatic user name mapping to occur for a CIFS and UNIX user name that are the same, you
must do what?
A.Enter the CIFS user in the NIS database.
B.Enter the user names in the /etc/hosts.equiv file.
C.Use both a NIS server and a Domain Controller in the network.
D.Nothing: mapping will occur if user name authentication is available.
Answer: D

Network Appliance   NS0-154   NS0-154

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