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Code d'Examen: VCP410-DT
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto)
Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp repository.
The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository?
(Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 A new SSL certificate has been installed on the View Security Server.
Which step must be completed to ensure that the Security Server uses the new certificate?
A. restart the VMware View Connection Server service
B. restart the VMware View Security Server service
C. start the newly created SSL_Certificate service
D. edit the locked.properties file to enable the new SSL certificate
Answer: B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three Replica Servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
A. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
B. Three Replica Servers can result in client connection problems.
C. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
D. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 4.6, the option to set the PCoIP External
URL of the Security Server is not available from View Administrator.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 4.6.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer provides a list of requirements for the virtual desktop environment for consideration during a
pre-implementation discussion.
Which three customer requirements will be satisfied by the View Connection Server in its role as a
connection broker? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication
B. desktop provisioning
C. connection negotiation between the client and the virtual desktop
D. desktop assignment, if available
E. USB redirection
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.6 A company opens a new remote office with five PCoIP-enabled thin clients. The administrator
configures the clients to connect to the View Security Server installed at headquarters.
Which setting must the administrator configure on the View Security Server to make sure PCoIP is routed
to the internal network?
A. PCoIP External URL
B. PCoIP Gateway URL
C. PCoIP Gateway Address
D. External URL
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the virtualization software requirements for View Connection Server?
A. vSphere 4.0 Update 2 or vSphere 4.1
B. vSphere 4.0 Update 1 or vSphere 4.1
C. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 Update 4 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 5 D. VMware Infrastructure
3.5 Update 3 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 3
Answer: A

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NO.8 A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from the
View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 To use previously created desktop virtual machines, which type of desktop pool should the View
administrator create?
A. automated desktop pool
B. manual desktop pool
C. persistent desktop pool
D. custom desktop pool
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original
install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp
package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all
users?
A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync
Answer: B

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NO.13 A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View
administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a
dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements?
A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing
Answer: B

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NO.14 A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 4.5
Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message
from the View Client that indicates The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A new Connection Server has been added to the View environment. View administrators and clients
cannot connect to that new Connection Server. However, connectivity to the pre-existing Connection
Servers remains active.
Which three configurations should be verified to diagnose the problem.? (Choose three.)
A. that you can connect directly to the new Connection Server using telnet on port 80
B. that the View Connection Server services are running on the newly added Connection Server
C. that the IP address for the new Connection Server has not changed on the server or within DNS
D. that the Security Server associated with the Connection Server is running
E. that the vCenter Server system associated with the Connection Server is running
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: VCP5-DCV
Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 327 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.3 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.5 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the
datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.6 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running
a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster
from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.7 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and
finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: DP-021W
Nom d'Examen: Veritas (Design of Data Protection Solutions for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which major shift in business direction most significantly affects for the highest levels of
Data Protection?
A. customer self-service Web applications
B. staff reduction
C. automated workgroup processes
D. revenue recognition
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your NetBackup environment will consist of two media servers (Server A and Server B)
and a robot with four tape drives. Each media server also functions as a large files server
on the network.
Which design best uses the available hardware?
A. configures Server A as the robot control host, configure the four drives on ServerB
B. configure Server A as the robot control host, configure two drives on each media
server
C. configures both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure the four drives on
ServerA
D. configure both media servers as the robot control hosts, configure two drives on each
media server
Answer: B

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NO.3 When determining the required backup performance of a Data Protection design,
which three items should be determined? (choose three)
A. media server backup performance
B. network and SAN data rates
C. capacity of tape media
D. client backup windows
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 In reviewing the bpbkar logs on a NetBackup client to investigate slow backups it is
noticed that several drives are being backed up concurrently rather than sequentially.
Each of the logical drives is a partition on a single physical disk drive.
Which is disabled to avoid "disk thrashing" on this client and other similarly configured
clients?
A. multistreaming
B. True Image Restore
C. parallel backups
D. multiplexing
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have analyzed the current configuration of a data protection environment.
You now need to determine your expectations for future growth.
Which type of analysis do you perform?
A. Gap Analysis
B. Storage Checkpoint analysis
C. GANTT chart analysis
D. PERT chart analysis
Answer: A

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NO.6 Recovery Time Objectives address which element?
A. Databases must be recovered to the last fully committed transition.
B. Cold database backups must be performed every day.
C. The data in different applications may have different recovery requirements
D. Flat file and database are to be treated the same in terms of importance.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are in the process of disaster recovery planning. Your focus is on the
recovery of IT systems. In your evaluation of the environment you must collect
data regarding the physical locations.
Which list contains the main categories of disasters?
A. logical (hardware-related)
logical (software-related)
environmental
B. management failures
Logical (software-related)
environmental
C. SPDFA
logical(software-related)
environmental(software-related)
D. hardware failure
logical(software-related)
environmental
Answer: D

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NO.8 A large number of Windows 2003 clients are failing with status code 11. it is suspected
that the snapshot process is failing. In reviewing the Activity Monitor logs it is found that
backups of certain clients are very slow. These clients host a large number of small files.
What NetBackup feature helps resolve this issue?
A. VNETD
B. VOPIED
C. multiplexing
D. multistreaming
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have already designed a proposed solution for a department's data protection
requirement. Now you want to validate the design with the department
Which change in the department's environment affects your design the most?
A. increased server memory capacity
B. upgrades the Master Server
C. increased distance between clients and servers
D. a dedicated backup network
Answer: D

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NO.10 In which case will the FlashBackup feature be of benefit?
A. a large Oracle database that contains lots of data
B. a server with file system that are 80% full, containing several million files each
C. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing old files
D. a server with file systems that are 20% full, containing a few files, each several
hundred MB
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are encountering problems with host names and network connections. You have
already verified that the correct client and server host names are configured in
NetBackup.
Which commands do you use to verify name resolution on UNIX and Windows clients?
A. bpexpdate
B. bpclntcmd
C. bptest
D. bpverify
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have a Microsoft Windows 2003 client, which you want to add to the NetBackup
use VSP or NetBackup database options (for example, MSSQL,
Exchange, Oracle, and so on) on this client.
What would be the impact to downtime?
A. There will be two reboots required one reboot to load the VERITAS installer and one
reboot for NetBackup installation
B. There is no need for a reboot for NetBackup to be properly installed
C. There will be one reboot to load the VERITAS installer, but NetBackup will not
require a separate reboot.
D. There will be a need for NetBackup to be properly installed
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which three items are optional considerations in a Data Protection design? (Choose
three)
A using supported server platforms
B. using agents for databases
C. using mirror snapshots for backups
D. using a private backup network
Answer: BCD

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NO.14 You are determining the scope of a data protection solution. You have already
analyzedpreferences and deadlines.
Which two other items must be analyzed before you can provide a solution? (choose
two).
A. information in the SLA
B. network infrastructure
C. number of employees
D. number of tapes purchased
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 A new file server is being added to your NetBackup 5.0 environment. It is being used to
store 1-GB 'product' data files for the marketing department. The marketing department
already has 6,000 product data files in place (5 TB of total disk space) and expects to add
about 500 product files per week for the next 30 weeks. After files are added they are
never edited or modified.
You have an SLA with Marketing that you will perform a full backup every Saturday,
and the backup must be performed between 12:01a.m Saturday and Noon Saturday (a
36-hour window)
Given this, what is the minimum network bandwidth you need to handle the full backup?
A. teamed 1-gigabit (168 MB/s)
B. single 1-gigabit (84 MB/s)
C. 100 base T (8.4 MB/s)
D. 10 base T (0.8 MB/s)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Your NetBackup environment will consist of four media servers and a robot with
two tape drives. The media servers and the robot are SAN attaches. Each media
servers also functions as a large file server on the network.
Which three goals will be addressed by implementing the Shared Storage Option in
this environment? (Choose three)
A. minimized network traffic during the backup window
B. high performance on the four local media server backups
C. high performance on remote(network) client backups
D. improved tape drive usage among media servers.
E. improved performance data collection for backups
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 Your current Netbackup environment uses a tape library capable of holding 500 tapes .
Each tape is capable of holding 40GB of data. You are putting in a new library with
modem drives capable of holding 300GB each. You want to have twice the total capacity
of your old library to meet future growth.
What is the minimum of tape slots you will need in your new library?
A. 80
B. 110
C. 140
D. 170
Answer: C

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NO.18 Your current environment consists of one master server, four media servers and five
hundred clients. Your company has planned to add an additional datacenter with the
capacity of housing an additional 1,000 clients.
Which three things are considered when planning the expansion of your backup
environment? (choose three)
A. the operating system version of clients
B. SAN infrastructure available
C. cooling capacity of new datacenter
D. network connectivity between the datacenters
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.19 A system administrator has communicated an interest in using the NetBackup
FlashBackup feature of the Advanced Client. What key technical information must you
gather in order to know whether this feature would be appropriate.
A. number of files on the file system
B. frequency of backups needed
C. density of the tapes being used for backups
D. age of the files on the file system
Answer: A

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NO.20 Your environment uses a SAN for disk access.
Which feature of NetBackup 5.0 Advanced Client is appropriate?
A. fast backups
B. off-host backups
C. referential backups
D. incremental backups
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: TB0-120
Nom d'Examen: Tibco (TIBCO Enterprise Message Service™ 6 Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true about the listen parameter? (Choose two.)
A. The listen parameter is set in the tibemsd.conf file.
B. Multiple listen parameters can be set in the TIBCO EMS configuration file.
C. TCP is the only protocol supported in the listen parameter.
D. The listen parameter is set in the transports, conf file.
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which command displays message count delivered to a queue receiver?
A. Show consumers
B. Show receivers
C. Show connections
D. Show users
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does a backup fault-tolerant server detect a failure of the primary fault-tolerant server?
A. TCP heartbeats sent from the primary server
B. TCP heartbeats sent from the backup server
C. Multicast heartbeats sent from the primary server
D. Multicast heartbeats sent from the backup server
Answer: A

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NO.4 Atopic sales, topic is bridged to two queues: FINANCE.Q and AUDIT.Q. Ten messages are sent on the
topic SALES.TOPIC. A consumer reads ten messages from FINANCE.Q.
How many messages are now in the AUDIT.Q?
A. zero
B. five
C. ten
D. twenty
Answer: C

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NO.5 An EMS server and client are receiving heartbeats. Given the following EMS server settings:
-client_timeout_server_connection = 20 seconds -server_timeout_client_connection = 10 seconds
What are two possible outcomes? (Choose two.)
A. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
B. If EMS server does not receive heartbeats from a client for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the EMS
server will close the connection.
C. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 10 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
D. If a client does not receive heartbeats from EMS server for a period exceeding 20 seconds, the client
will close the connection.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about synchronous and asynchronous message consumption?
(Choose two.)
A. For synchronous consumption, the message consumer explicitly invokes a receive call on the topic or
queue.
B. The consumer can receive messages synchronously by registering a synchronous message listener to
receive the messages.
C. When asynchronously receiving messages, the consumer remains blocked until a message arrives.
D. For asynchronous consumption, a message listener can be implemented that serves as an
asynchronous event handler for messages.
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 The company naming standard states that all queue names must start with the letter C.
How can the administrator of the EMS server enforce this naming standard for dynamic queues?
A. By disabling creation of dynamic destinations in the tibemsd.conf file
B. By changing create-destination permission for users
C. By having c. > as the only entry with a wildcard in the queues.conf file
D. By setting a rule to add c. as a prefix to all dynamic queues
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two actions are most likely to improve EMS server performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Adding an additional CPU to the server running EMS
B. Improving physical disk performance
C. Switching from a file-based store to a database store
D. Increasing network I/O capacity on the server
Answer: B,D

Tibco examen   TB0-120   certification TB0-120   TB0-120

NO.9 Which two statements are true about selector functions? (Choose two.)
A. A selector's conditional expression can refer to values of the message body.
B. They are available for use in the bridging functions, helping to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
C. They are useful when used in conjunction with topic browser functions.
D. They are available to control the flow of messages along a route.
Answer: B,D

Tibco examen   TB0-120   TB0-120   TB0-120

NO.10 Which two conditions can cause messages in a queue to be moved to the undelivered queue? (Choose
two.)
A. The number of delivery attempts has reached the limit defined for the queue.
B. The number of pending messages has reached the limit defined for the queue.
C. The length of time the message has been retained in the queue has exceeded the limit defined for the
queue.
D. The overflow policy for the queue has been set to discard the oldest messages.
Answer: A,C

Tibco examen   certification TB0-120   TB0-120   TB0-120 examen

NO.11 When a single message consumer is connected with an EMS server, which action can be used to
improve message consumption?
A. Enabling automatic acknowledge of all messages by the session
B. Changing delivery mode from PERSISTENT to NON_PERSISTENT
C. Increasing the prefetch value
D. Creating another instance of EMS server
Answer: C

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NO.12 A dynamic queue named q1 has been created by an EMS client.
What will be the result of executing the following command: create queue q1?
A. The command will fail saying the queue already exists.
B. The command will fail if queue has connected receivers.
C. The command will succeed and queue will be promoted to static.
D. The command will succeed and dynamic queue will be renamed.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command creates a connection factory of type queue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

Tibco examen   TB0-120 examen   TB0-120   TB0-120 examen

NO.14 Which two statements are true about routing queue messages? (Choose two.)
A. Routed queue messages can travel to adjacent servers without reaching the home queue.
B. Each server in the route path must have its queue defined as global.
C. The concept of zones and hops does not apply to queue messages.
D. Queue messages can travel multiple hops.
Answer: B,C

Tibco   certification TB0-120   TB0-120   TB0-120 examen   certification TB0-120

NO.15 Which three commands will update EMS configuration files when an exclusive commit command is
issued from EMS? (Choose three.)
A. set server client trace=enabled
B. set server password=password
C. set server authorization=enabled
D. set server track_message_ids=enabled
E. set server routing=enabled
Answer: B,C,D

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Code d'Examen: OG0-093
Nom d'Examen: The Open Group (TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2)
Questions et réponses: 219 Q&As

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NO.1 What level of the Architecture Landscape provides a long-term summary view of the entire enterprise?
A. Capability Architecture
B. Operational Architecture
C. Segment Architecture
D. Strategic Architecture
E. Tactical Architecture
Answer: D

The Open Group   certification OG0-093   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093

NO.2 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category is for resources NOT
referenced by content within the other categories?
A. TOGAF Core
B. TOGAF Extension
C. TOGAF Mandatory
D. TOGAF Recommended
E. TOGAF Supporting
Answer: E

certification The Open Group   OG0-093   OG0-093   OG0-093   certification OG0-093

NO.3 According to TOGAF, where should architecture governance artifacts be stored?
A. In the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model
B. In the Standards Information Base
C. In the Foundation Architecture
D. In the Architecture Repository
Answer: D

The Open Group   OG0-093   OG0-093   certification OG0-093

NO.4 According to the TOGAF Document Categorization Model, Which category describes a technique that is
referenced by processes categorized as TOGAF Core and TOGAF Mandated?
A. TOGAF Guidelines and Techniques
B. TOGAF Recommended
C. TOGAF Supporting
D. TOGAF Extension
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true.?
A. Part I describes the TOGAF approach to Enterprise Architecture
B. Part II describes the definitions of terms used and the changes between versions of TOGAF
C. Part III describes requirements management and is considered to be the core of TOGAF
D. Part IV describes the ADM: a collection of guidelines and techniques used in TOGAF 9
Answer: A

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NO.6 According to TOGAF, Which of the following are the architecture domains that are commonly accepted
subsets of an overall enterprise architecture?
A. Application, Business, Data, Technology
B. Capability, Segment, Strategic
C. Context, Definition, Governance, Transformation
D. Definition, Realization, Transition, Vision
Answer: A

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NO.7 According to TOGAF, Which one of the following best describes an enterprise architecture?
A. An architecture of a commercial organization
B. An architecture that consists of more than one subsidiary company
C. An architecture that crosses multiple systems, and multiple functional groups within the enterprise
D. The highest level of architecture that can be achieved in a given organization
Answer: C

The Open Group   certification OG0-093   OG0-093   certification OG0-093

NO.8 Which one of the following best describes the implications of TOGAF being a generic framework?
A. The organization must utilize an architecture tool in order to tailor the templates for use
B. It must be adapted to satisfy organization specific requirements
C. It can be utilized by most enterprises without further customization
D. It can only be used for enterprise level architecture projects E. It should only be employed under the
supervision of highly trained consultants
Answer: B

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NO.9 Complete the sentence. To promote effective architectural activity within the enterprise, TOGAF 9
recommends the establishment of a(n) _____
A. Enterprise Architecture Capability
B. IT Governing Board
C. Program Management Office
D. Quality Assurance department
E. Service Management department
Answer: A

The Open Group   OG0-093   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093

NO.10 Which section of the TOGAF document describes the processes, skills and roles to establish and
operate an architecture function within an enterprise?
A. Part II: Architecture Development Method
B. Part III: ADM Guidelines and Techniques
C. Part IV: Architecture Content Framework
D. Part VI: TOGAF Reference Models
E. Part VII: Architecture Capability Framework
Answer: E

The Open Group   certification OG0-093   OG0-093

NO.11 Which phase of the ADM is used to finalize a set of transition architectures that will support
implementation?
A. Phase D
B. Phase E
C. Phase F
D. Phase G
E. Phase H
Answer: C

The Open Group   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093   OG0-093   OG0-093

NO.12 Which of the following reasons best describes why the ADM numbering scheme for versioning output is
an example and not mandatory?
A. To show the evolution of deliverables
B. To permit adaptation as required
C. To enable use with the Architecture Content Framework
D. To support change management
Answer: B

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NO.13 According to TOGAF, the recommended dimensions used to define the scope of an architecture
include all the following, except:
A. Architecture Domains
B. Enterprise Focus
C. Level of Detail
D. Subject Matter
E. Time Period
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which one of the following is NOT an element of an architecture framework?
A. A common vocabulary
B. A list of recommended standards
C. A method for designing an information system in terms of building blocks
D. A set of structuresWhichcan be used to develop a broad range of architectures
E. A system development lifecycle method for software engineering
Answer: E

The Open Group examen   certification OG0-093   OG0-093   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093

NO.15 Complete the sentence. TOGAF 9 Part III provides techniques, such as developing principles and gap
analysis, to support tasks within the ______
A. Architecture Capability Framework
B. Architecture Continuum
C. Architecture Development Method
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Architecture Repository
Answer: C

The Open Group examen   OG0-093   OG0-093   OG0-093   certification OG0-093

NO.16 Which of the following is the architecture domain that describes the logical software and hardware
capabilities?
A. Application Architecture
B. Business Architecture
C. Data Architecture
D. Technology Architecture
Answer: D

The Open Group   OG0-093   OG0-093 examen

NO.17 What part of the Architecture Repository holds specifications toWhich architectures must conform?
A. Standards Information Base
B. Enterprise Continuum
C. Governance Log
D. Architecture Landscape
E. Reference Library
Answer: A

The Open Group   certification OG0-093   certification OG0-093   OG0-093

NO.18 Which one of the following lists the main components within the TOGAF Architecture Repository?
A. Organizational Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, Best Practices, Reference
Library, Compliance Strategy
B. Architecture Metamodel, Organizational Capability Model, Application Landscape, SIB, Reference
Library, Governance Model
C. Business Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
D. Architecture Metamodel, Architecture Capability, Architecture Landscape, SIB, Reference Library,
Governance Log
Answer: D

The Open Group examen   certification OG0-093   OG0-093 examen   OG0-093   OG0-093

NO.19 Which one of the following describes classification methods for architecture and solution artifacts
within the Architecture Repository?
A. Architecture Landscape
B. Architecture Vision
C. Enterprise Continuum
D. Governance Log
E. Standards Information Base
Answer: C

The Open Group examen   OG0-093   certification OG0-093

NO.20 In TOGAF, What is the difference between an artifact and a deliverable?
A. An artifact contains one or more deliverables
B. Artifacts and deliverables are synonymous; there is no difference between them
C. Deliverables are prepared by the Project Manager, whereas artifacts are defined by the Architect
D. Deliverables are reusable, whereas artifacts are unique to a given architecture project
E. Deliverables are specified as contractual outputs from a project, whereas artifacts are not
Answer: E

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Code d'Examen: 250-265
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for UNIX(NBU 6.5))
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

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NO.1 A tape is automatically frozen when NetBackup attempts to use it for a policy backup.
Which condition can cause this?
A.The tape is full.
B.The tape has expired.
C.The tape is already in use.
D.The tape has been used for NetBackup catalogs.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-265   250-265

NO.2 What is the minimum supported client version for NetBackup 6.5?
A.3.4
B.4.5
C.4.5 FP6
D.5.x
Answer: D

Symantec   250-265 examen   250-265 examen   250-265

NO.3 Which NetBackup process is responsible for reading data from the client during a backup?
A.bprd
B.bpcd
C.bpbkar32
D.bpbackup
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which servers can be added to a server group? (Choose three.)
A.Master server
B.Media server
C.EMM server
D.NDMP tape server
E.NOM server
Answer: ABD

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265   250-265   250-265 examen

NO.5 You have a NetBackup installation where the master and EMM servers are two separate servers.
Which NetBackup components are found on the EMM server?
A.nbemm, nbproxy, pbx, nbrb
B.nbemm, nbjm, pbx, nbproxy
C.nbemm, pbx, nbrb, nbjm
D.nbemm, nbproxy, nbrb, nbjm
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265

NO.6 When installing NetBackup 6.5, which documents should be reviewed before installing the
application?
(Choose three.)
A.Release Notes
B.Hardware Compatability Guide
C.Hardware Supported List
D.Operating System Compatability Guide
E.Operating System Supported List
Answer: ABD

Symantec   250-265   250-265 examen   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.7 Which processes can run on a media server? (Choose three.)
A.bpbrm
B.bpdm
C.bprd
D.bpdbm
E.bptm
Answer: ABE

Symantec examen   250-265   250-265   250-265 examen   250-265

NO.8 Which statements are true about a media server upgrade from version 6.0 to version 6.5? (Choose
three.)
A.All clients must be on 6.5 if their media server is on 6.5.
B.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 5.1.
C.The media server must be on 6.5 or 6.0 if the clients are on 6.0.
D.The master server can be upgraded to 6.5 and media servers can remain at 6.0.
E.The media server can be upgraded to 6.5 and the master server can remain at 6.0.
Answer: BCD

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NO.9 The Inventory Robot function within the NetBackup Administration console is used to _____.
A.List ejected tapes
B.Delete bad media
C.Unfreeze frozen media
D.Update the volume configuration
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-265   certification 250-265

NO.10 After replacing a tape drive, which NetBackup command can you run to verify the operating system is
seeing the new tape drive?
A.scan -all
B.scan -os
C.tape -scan
D.tape -config
Answer: A

Symantec   250-265   250-265   250-265

NO.11 How do you ensure that your policies are backing up all volumes/file systems on all of your clients?
A.Use bp_testall
B.Use bpconfirm
C.Use check_coverage
D.Check the Backup_All option in every policy
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265 examen

NO.12 When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup
that can be running on a media server?
A.5.0 MP3
B.5.0 MP4
C.5.1
D.5.1 MP4
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are functions of the EMM server? (Choose three.)
A.It provides a decentralized data store.
B.It provides a centralized data store.
C.It manages the allocation of resources.
D.It communicates with media servers.
E.It stores the image catalog.
Answer: BCD

Symantec   certification 250-265   250-265 examen   certification 250-265

NO.14 Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A.An EMM server supports only one master server.
B.An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C.Amaster server may use more than one EMM server.
D.Amaster server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A.All media server installations require a server license key.
B.All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C.All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D.All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
E.All media server installations require a tape drive be configured on the system.
Answer: AC

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NO.16 Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation?
(Choose three.)
A.You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B.At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C.All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D.You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
E.You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A.Within the EMM database.
B.On the EMM server in binary format.
C.On the master server in binary format.
D.Within the master server's Sybase database.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which log do you monitor to determine if multiplexing could improve performance?
A.bptm
B.bprd
C.nbjob
D.nbpem
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which command can be used to configure tape drives and robotic devices?
A.tpautoconfig
B.tpconfig
C.tpreq
D.tpext
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are at a disaster recovery site, testing restores from your offsite duplicate tapes. To begin
performing restores, you must change the duplicate copies to be the primary copy.
Which commands can you use to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A.bprecover
B.bpchangeprimary
C.bpimage
D.bpexpdate
E.bprestore
Answer: BC

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NO.21 Which command is used to view NetBackup processes?
A.bpps
B.bpnos
C.bpverify
D.bpsl
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which NetBackup components make up IRM?
A.nbpem, nbjobd, nbgenjob
B.nbpem, nbjm, nbrb
C.nbpem, nbgenjob, nbjm
D.nbpem, nbrb, nbsl
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A.bpbkar
B.bpbrm
C.tar
D.bpcompatd
E.bpcd
Answer: ACE

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NO.24 Which information is included in the disaster recovery e-mail sent by the hot catalog backup?
A.EMM server, Backup Media, DR file name and location
B.EMM server, Recovery Media, DR file name and location
C.Media Server, Critical Backup Recovery Media, DR file name and location
D.Media Server, Catalog Recovery Media, DR file name and location
Answer: D

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NO.25 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.
Three tape drives are available in the storage unit.
Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.
The client specified has five local file systems with no exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be active (versus queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.5
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which statement is true about storage lifecycles?
A.Staged capacity managed retention is only available on disk storage units.
B.Backups are guaranteed to remain on the disk for the desired cache period.
C.Data classifications are required if backing up to tape storage units.
D.Backup types include backup, duplicate, and catalog.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which statement is true about a policy that has its start window set to daily from 8:00 p.m. to 11:00
p.m.?
A.Backups will always start at 8:00 p.m.
B.Backups will never run past 11:00 p.m.
C.Backups will never start after 11:00 p.m.
D.Backups will pause at 11:00 p.m.
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which operating systems are supported as clients in NetBackup 6.5? (Choose three.)
A.Windows 2000
B.Windows NT 4.0 SP6
C.Windows 2003
D.Solaris 7
E.Solaris 9
Answer: ACE

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NO.29 As part of a hot catalog backup, which NetBackup components are backed up? (Choose three.)
A.EMM database
B.Image database
C.NOM database
D.configuration files
E.hosts file
Answer: ABD

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NO.30 Media ID A00001 continues to have various errors. You are unsure if you are having problems with
this tape or a specific tape drive.
Which file can be reviewed to see when the error occured and which tape drive was being used?
A.errors
B.mediaDB
C.bpdm log
D.bpbkar log
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-052
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.4 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.5 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.7 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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NO.8 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.10 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.13 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.14 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.15 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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NO.19 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.20 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.21 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.22 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.25 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.26 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.27 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.29 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.30 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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