CompTIA examen de certification vraies questions et réponses

2013年11月2日星期六

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Code d'Examen: A00-202
Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS advanced programming exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 The following SAS program is submitted: proc sort data = sales tagsort; by month year; run; Which of
the following resource(s) is the TAGSORT option reducing?
A. I/O usage only
B. CPU usage only
C. I/O and CPU usage
D. temporary disk usage
Answer: D

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NO.2 The following SAS program is submitted: %let value = 9; %let value2 = 5; %let newval = %eval(&value
/ &value2); Which one of the following is the resulting value of the macro variable NEWVAL?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 1.8
D. null
Answer:A

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NO.3 The following SAS program is submitted: data new (bufsize = 6144 bufno = 4); set old; run; Which one
of the following describes the difference between the usage of BUFSIZE= and BUFNO= options?
A. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the input buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
B. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in bytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
C. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of input
buffers.
D. BUFSIZE= specifies the size of the output buffer in kilobytes; BUFNO= specifies the number of output
buffers.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of the following is an advantage of creating and using a SAS DATA step view?
A. It can store an index.
B. It always accesses the most current data.
C. It works quickly through multiple passes of the data.
D. It is useful when the underlying data file structure changes.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statement(s) in the DATASETS procedure alters the name of a SAS data set
stored in a SAS data library?
A. RENAME statement only
B. CHANGE statement only
C. MODIFY and RENAME statements
D. MODIFY and CHANGE statements
Answer: B

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NO.6 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR
SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 2002 1 700
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two; quit; Which one of
the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: D

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NO.7 The variable attributes of SAS data sets ONE and TWO are shown below: ONE TWO # Variable Type
Len Pos # Variable Type Len Pos 2 sales Num 8 8 2 budget Num 8 8 1 year Num 8 0 3 sales Char 8 16 1
year Num 8 0 Data set ONE contains 100 observations. Data set TWO contains 50 observations. Both
data sets are sorted by the variable YEAR. The following SAS program is submitted: data three;
merge one two; by year; run; Which one of the following is the result of the program execution?
A. No messages are written to the SAS log.
B. ERROR and WARNING messages are written to the SAS log.
C. Data set THREE is created with two variables and 50 observations.
D. Data set THREE is created with three variables and 100 observations.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The WHERE statement can be executed conditionally as part of an IF statement.
B. The WHERE statement selects observations before they are brought into the PDV.
C. The subsetting IF statement works on observations before they are read into the PDV.
D. The WHERE and subsetting IF statements can be used interchangeably in all SAS programs.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE REP COST
SMITH
200
SMITH
400
JONES
100
SMITH 600
JONES
100
JONES
200
JONES
400
SMITH
800
JONES
100
JONES 300
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select rep, avg(cost) as AVERAGE from one group by
rep having avg(cost) > (select avg(cost) from one); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. REP AVERAGE
JONES 200
B. REP AVERAGE
JONES 320
C. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 320
D. REP AVERAGE
SMITH 500
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which one of the following programs contains a syntax error?
A. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity
from product p, cost c, sales s where p.item = c.item and p.item = s.item; quit;
B. proc sql; select product.*, cost.unitcost, sales.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item =
cost.item and product.item = sales.item; quit;
C. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product as p, cost as c, sales as s where p.item = c.item
and p.item = s.item; quit;
D. proc sql; select p.*, c.unitcost, s.quantity from product, cost, sales where product.item = cost.item and
product.item = sales.item; quit;
Answer: D

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NO.11 The following SAS program is submitted: data one; do i = 1 to 10; ptobs = ceil(ranuni(0) * totobs); set
temp point = ptobs nobs = totobs; output; end; stop; run; The SAS data set TEMP contains 2,500,000
observations. Which one of the following represents the possible values for PTOBS?
A. any integer between 1 and 10
B. any real number between 0 and 1
C. any integer between 1 and 2,500,000
D. any real number between 1 and 2,500,000
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which one of the following options controls the pagesize of a SAS data set?
A. SIZE=
B. BUFNO=
C. BUFSIZE=
D. PAGESIZE=
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given the following SAS statement: %let idcode = Prod567; Which one of the following statements
stores the value 567 in the macro variable CODENUM?
A. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-2);
B. %let codenum = substr(&idcode,length(&idcode)-3);
C. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-2);
D. %let codenum = %substr(&idcode,%length(&idcode)-3);
Answer: C

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NO.14 The SAS data set TEMP has the following distribution of values for variable A: A Frequency 1 500,000
2 500,000 6 7,000,000
3,000 Which one of the following SAS programs requires the least CPU time to be processed?
A. data new; set temp; if a = 8 then b = 'Small '; else if a in(1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
B. data new; set temp; if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b = 'Small'; else if a = 6 then b =
'Large'; run;
C. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large '; else if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Medium'; else if a = 8 then b =
'Small';
D. data new; set temp; if a = 6 then b = 'Large ';
if a in (1, 2) then b = 'Small'; run;
Answer: C

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NO.15 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO:
ONE TWO YEAR QTR BUDGET YEAR QTR SALES
2001 3 500 2001 4 300 2001 4 400 2002 1 600 ] 2002 1 700 The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sql; select one.*, sales from one, two
where one.year = two.year; quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
B. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 . 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
C. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 600
D. YEAR QTR BUDGET SALES
2001 3 500 300 2001 4 400 300 2002 1 700 300 2001 3 500 600 2001 4 400 600 2002 1 700 600
Answer: C

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NO.16 Given the following SAS data sets ONE and TWO: ONE TWO NUM COUNTRY NUM CITY
______________ ______________
1 CANADA 3
BERLIN
2
FRANCE 5
TOKYO
3 GERMANY 4 BELGIUM
5 JAPAN
The following SAS program is submitted: proc sql; select country from one where not exists
(select * from two where one.num = two.num); quit; Which one of the following reports is generated?
A. COUNTRY
GERMANY JAPAN
B. COUNTRY FRANCE BELGIUM
C. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE BELGIUM
D. COUNTRY
CANADA FRANCE GERMANY
Answer: C

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NO.17 The following SAS program is submitted: <insert statement here>; %let development = ontime; proc
print data = sasuser.highway; title "For &dept"; title2 "This project was completed &development"; run;
Which one of the following statements completes the above and resolves title1 to "For
research&development"?
A. %let dept = %str(research&development);
B. %let dept = %str(research%&development);
C. %let dept = %nrstr(research&development);
D. %let dept = %nrstr(research%&development);
Answer: C

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NO.18 Given the following SAS data set ONE: ONE NUM VAR
1. 2 B 3C Which one of the following SQL programs deletes the SAS data set ONE?
A. proc sql; delete table one; quit;
B. proc sql; alter table one drop num, var; quit;
C. proc sql; drop table one; quit;
D. proc sql; delete from one; quit;
Answer: C

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NO.19 The following SAS code is submitted: %macro houses(dsn = houses,sub = RANCH); data &dsn; set
sasuser.houses; if style = "&sub"; run; %mend; %houses(sub = SPLIT)
%houses(dsn = ranch) %houses(sub = TWOSTORY) Which one of the following is the value of the
automatic macro variable SYSLAST?
A. work.ranch
B. work.houses
C. WORK.RANCH
D. WORK.HOUSES
Answer: D

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NO.20 Consider the following SAS log: 229 data sasuser.ranch sasuser.condo / view = sasuser.ranch;
230 set sasuser.houses; 231 if style = 'RANCH' then output sasuser.ranch; 232 else if style = 'CONDO'
then output sasuser.condo; 233 run; NOTE: DATA STEP view saved on file SASUSER.RANCH. NOTE: A
stored DATA STEP view cannot run under a different operating system. 234 235 proc print data =
sasuser.condo; ERROR: File SASUSER.CONDO.DATA does not exist. 236 run; NOTE: The SAS System
stopped processing this step because of errors. Which one of the following explains why the PRINT
procedure fails?
A. SASUSER.CONDO is a stored DATA step program.
B. A SAS data file and SAS data view cannot be created in the same DATA step.
C. A second VIEW=SASUSER.CONDO option was omitted on the DATA statement.
D. The view SASUSER.RANCH must be processed before SASUSER.CONDO is created.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: A00-250
Nom d'Examen: SASInstitute (SAS Platform Administration for SAS9)
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 The METALIB procedure enables you to update table metadata. Which method does NOT provide
access to the METALIB procedure?
A. SAS Management Console's update metadata feature
B. SAS Enterprise Guide Explorer's library management feature
C. SAS Data Integration Studio's update table metadata feature
D. custom code using PROC METALIB.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Select the method for updating table metadata that provides for the most control over updating features
and can be run in batch.
A. Update Metadata option in Data Library Manager in SAS Management Console.
B. Update Library Metadata task in SAS Enterprise Guide.
C. Update Metadata option in SAS Data Integration Studio.
D. METALIB procedure using SAS code.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A platform administrator needs to delete metadata for table definitions with the following characteristics:
-
the table definitions exist in the metadata repository
-
the table definitions do not have a corresponding table in the physical library
After performing impact analysis, what action should the platform administrator take?
A. delete repository
B. delete physical library
C. delete the table's metadata folder
D. update table metadata
Answer: D

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NO.4 A host is using an LDAP provider as a back-end authentication mechanism. For this setup, how does
the SAS server view the authentication?
A. integrated authentication
B. back-end authentication
C. internal authentication
D. host authentication
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer's environment has a standard workspace server instantiated by the object spawner. What
authentication is required to support this configuration?
A. back-end authentication
B. integrated authentication
C. host authentication
D. internal authentication
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statement is a disadvantage of pre-assigned libraries?
A. The server does not become available to the user until all pre-assigned libraries have been assigned.
B. Pre-assigned libraries must be identical across all SAS client applications.
C. Pre-assigned libraries must be assigned using the autoexec file.
D. The administrator cannot control which engine is used to access data in a pre-assigned library.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is FALSE? Updating table metadata enables you to:
A. add table metadata for tables that exist in the physical library but have no metadata in the repository.
B. update table definitions to match corresponding physical tables.
C. update table security settings at the metadata and operating system level.
D. delete metadata for table definitions that exist in the metadata repository but do not have a
corresponding table in the physical library.
Answer: C

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NO.8 A client wants to have their system set up so that stored processes can access libraries without having
to manage library assignments in the stored process code. How should the libraries be assigned?
A. by default
B. by client application
C. by pre-assignment
D. by user access
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is an advantage of pre-assigned libraries?
A. Libraries are available in stored processes with no additional steps.
B. Metadata security is always applied to pre-assigned libraries.
C. User-written formats are only available to pre-assigned libraries.
D. Maintenance is reduced for the platform administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Given the following applications:
-
SAS Add-in for Microsoft Office
-
SAS Enterprise Guide By default,
How do these applications assign libraries?
A. by using the SAS/ACCESS interface
B. by using the metadata LIBNAME engine
C. by using the BASE SAS engine
D. by using the server autoexec file
Answer: B

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NO.1 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
A.When the TCP FIN bit is set
B.When the TCP PSH bit is set
C.When the TCP RST bit is set
D.A and C
E.A and B
F.None of the above
Answer:D

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NO.2 What types of IPSec encryption ciphers are supported by default on the Steelhead appliance? (Select 2)
A.DES
B.3DES
C.AES
D.NULL
E.RC2
Answer:ADB

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NO.3 Of the following, which class priority is defined for the "default" QoS class?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:D

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NO.4 What are the key benefits of Scalable Data Referencing (SDR)? (Select 2)
A.Reduces data sent across the WAN
B.Reduces data sent across the LAN
C.Speed up data transfers across the WAN
D.Speed up data transfers across the LAN
E.Speed up all UDP connections across the WAN
Answer:AC

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NO.5 Under what circumstances will the NetFlow cache entries flush (transmitted to the collector)?
(Select 3)
A.When inactive flows have remained for 15 seconds
B.When inactive flows have remained for 30 minutes
C.When active flows have remained for 30 minutes
D.When the TCP URG bit is set
E.When the TCP FIN bit is set
Answer:ACE

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NO.6 Asymmetric Route Detection configured on the client-side Steelhead appliance examines which of the
following TCP flags to determine if route asymmetry has occurred?
A.RST
B.FIN
C.PSH
D.URG
Answer:A

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NO.7 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node. Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands best defines the transactional class as well as classify all traffic from
the 192.16.16.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority business min-pct 20
B.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority low min-pct 20
C.qos classification class add class-name transactional priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.16.16.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port all rulenum 1
E.qos classification rule add class-name transactional traffic-type all source subnet 192.16.16.0/24 port all
destination subnet 192.17.17.0/24 port 3300 rulenum 3
Answer:AE

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NO.8 A QoS policy defines three classes of service including the class "default".The class "default" should
have a DSCP marking of default value and act as a "catchall" for traffic.Which of the following QoS DSCP
rules is correct?
A.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 12 rulenum 3
B.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src 10.0.0.4 dest 10.0.0.1 dscp 0 rulenum 1
C.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp default rulenum 3
D.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 1
E.qos dscp rule traffic-type optimized src all dest all dscp 0 rulenum 3
Answer:E

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NO.9 What does CIFS transparent prepopulation require in order to be configured? (Select 3)
A.Join Windows Domain
B.Remote Shared Path
C.Credentials
D.Schedule
E.Data Center Steelhead IP
Answer:BCD

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NO.10 Upon implementing a NetFlow based reporting solution, your auditing department asks you why it takes
30 minutes for active data flows to report back to the NetFlow collector, and if you can change it to 15
minutes. Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for active flows to
15 minutes? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip flow-setting active_to 900
B.ip flow-setting active_to 15
C.ip netflow active_to 30
D.ip netflow active_to 900
E.The export time of 30 minutes cannot be changed
Answer:A

Riverstone   199-01   certification 199-01   199-01   199-01

NO.11 What version of NetFlow does Riverbed RiOS support?
A.NetFlow v1
B.NetFlow v5
C.NetFlow v7
D.NetFlow v8
E.NetFlow v9
Answer:B

Riverstone   199-01   199-01 examen   199-01   199-01

NO.12 A customer would like to convert the Steelhead appliance into an ingress DiffServ node.Prior to that,
the router was playing this role and it has the following QoS policy:
policy-map riverbed
class voip
priority percent 10
!
class mission-critical5
bandwidth percent 30
random-detect
!
class transactional
bandwidth percent 20
random-detect
!
class class-default
fair-queue
random-detect
!
Which of the following commands correctly define the mission-critical class as well as classify optimized
traffic from the 192.12.12.0/24 subnet destined to the 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080 into the class? (Select 2)
A.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority realtime min-pct 10
B.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 10
C.qos classification class add class-name mission-critical priority interactive min-pct 30
D.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type passthrough source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
E.qos classification rule add rulenum 2 class-name mission-critical traffic-type optimized source subnet
192.12.12.0/24 port all destination subnet 192.13.13.0/24 port 8080
Answer:CE

Riverstone   199-01   certification 199-01

NO.13 Assuming the default settings for Connection Forwarding, how long does it take for a Steelhead
appliance to declare a neighbor is down?
A.10 seconds
B.15 seconds
C.20 seconds
D.25 seconds
E.30 seconds
Answer:E

Riverstone   199-01   199-01   199-01

NO.14 Which of the following QoS mechanisms are supported in the Steelhead appliance? (Select 4)
A.NBAR
B.Traffic Shaping
C.Prioritization
D.Classification
E.Marking
Answer:BCDE

Riverstone examen   certification 199-01   199-01

NO.15 What are the available interfaces to use for NetFlow export on a Steelhead appliance with a 4-port
card? (Select 2)
A.WAN0_0
B.WAN1_0
C.Primary
D.LAN0_0
E.AUX
Answer:CE

certification Riverstone   199-01   199-01 examen   199-01   certification 199-01

NO.16 What value (in hexadecimal) is added to the TCP option field by the client-side Steelhead appliance
during auto-discovery?
A.0x76
B.0xFC
C.0x4C
D.0xEC
Answer:C

Riverstone   certification 199-01   199-01 examen   199-01

NO.17 Which of the following are a complete list of in-path rule types available for configuration on a
Steelhead appliance?
A.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target
B.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard
C.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, discard, deny
D.auto discovery, pass through, fixed-target, forced peer, discard, deny
Answer:C

Riverstone examen   199-01 examen   certification 199-01   certification 199-01   199-01

NO.18 Data for inactive flows will get exported to a NetFlow collector after 15 seconds of flow inactivity. In order
to reduce the amount of traffic sent across the WAN, you would like to increase this value to 1 minute.
Which of the following CLI commands can be used to change the export timer for inactive flows to 1
minute? (Hint: Use the calculator)
A.ip netflow inactive_to 60
B.ip flow-setting inactive_to 60
C.ip netflow inactive_to 1
D.ip flow-setting inactive_to 1
E.The export time of 15 seconds cannot be changed
Answer:B

Riverstone examen   199-01   199-01   199-01   199-01 examen   199-01

NO.19 Which of the following may cause Asymmetric Route Detection?
A.Receiving an RST packet from the client with an invalid sequence number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
B.Receiving a SYN/ACK packet from the server with an invalid ACK number while the connection is in the
SYN_SENT state
C.Receiving an ACK packet from the client while the connection is in the SYN_SENT state
D.Receiving SYN retransmits from the client
E.All of the above
Answer:E

Riverstone   199-01 examen   certification 199-01

NO.20 Which of the following would most likely represent the best class for classifying VoIP traffic?
A.Real-time
B.Interactive
C.Business Critical
D.Normal
E.Low Priority
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: RH-202
Nom d'Examen: RedHat (Redhat Certified Technician on Redhat Enterprise Linux 5 (Labs))
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 quotaon -u /data

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.2 Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.3 vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda? swap swap defaults 0 0

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.4 Verify by mounting on current Sessions also:
mount /dev/hda? /data
5. You are new System Administrator and from now you are going to handle the system and your main
task is Network monitoring, Backup and Restore. But you don't know the root password. Change the root
password to redhat and login in default Runlevel.
Answer and Explanation:
When you Boot the System, it starts on default Runlevel specified in /etc/inittab: Id:?:initdefault:
When System Successfully boot, it will ask for username and password. But you don't know the root's
password. To change the root password you need to boot the system into single user mode. You can pass
the kernel arguments from the boot loader.
1. Restart the System.
2. You will get the boot loader GRUB screen.
3. Press a and type 1 or s for single mode ro root=LABEL=/ rhgb queit s
4. System will boot on Single User mode.
5. Use passwd command to change.
6. Press ctrl+d
6. There are more then 400 Computers in your Office. You are appointed as a System Administrator. But
you don't have Router. So, you are going to use your One Linux Server as a Router. How will you enable
IP packets forward?
Answer and Explanation:
1. /proc is the virtual filesystem, we use /proc to modify the kernel parameters at running time.
# echo "1" >/proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward
2. /etc/sysctl.conf when System Reboot on next time, /etc/rc.d/rc.sysinit scripts reads the file
/etc/sysctl.conf. To enable the IP forwarding on next reboot also you need to set the parameter.
net.ipv4.ip_forward=1
Here 0 means disable, 1 means enable.
7. You Completely Install the Redhat Enterprise Linux ES 4 on your System. While start the system, it's
giving error to load X window System. How will you fix that problem and make boot successfully run X
Window System.
Answer and Explanation:
Think while Problems occurred on booting System on Runlevel 5 (X Window).
1. /tmp is full or not
2. Quota is already reached
3. Video card or resolution or monitor is misconfigured.
4. xfs service is running or not.
Do These:
1. df -h /tmp /tmp is full remove the unnecessary file
2. quota username if quota is already reached remove unnecessary file from home directory.
3. Boot the System in runlevel 3. you can pass the Kernel Argument from boot loader.
4. Use command: system-config-display It will display a dialog to configure the monitor, Video card,
resolution etc.
5. Set the Default Runlevel 5 in /etc/inittab id:5:initdefault:
6. Reboot the System you will get the GUI login Screen.
8. There are two different networks, 192.168.0.0/24 and 192.168.1.0/24. Your System is in 192.168.0.0/24
Network. One RHEL 4 Installed System is going to use as a Router. All required configuration is already
done on Linux Server. Where 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254 IP Address are assigned on that Server.
How will make successfully ping to 192.168.1.0/24 Network's Host?
Answer:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/network
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
OR
vi /etc/sysconf/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth0
DEVICE=eth0
BOOTPROTO=static
ONBOOT=yes
IPADDR=192.168.0.?
NETMASK=255.255.255.0
GATEWAY=192.168.0.254
2. service network restart
Explanation: Gateway defines the way to exit the packets. According to question System working as a
router for two networks have IP Address 192.168.0.254 and 192.168.1.254. To get the hosts on
192.168.1.0/24 should go through 192.168.0.254.
9. Make a swap partition having 100MB. Make Automatically Usable at System Boot Time.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partition
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.
Default System ID is 83 that means Linux Native.
7. Type t to change the System ID of partition.
8. Type Partition Number
9. Type 82 that means Linux Swap.
10. Press w to write on partitions table.
11. Either Reboot or use partprobe command.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.5 swapon /dev/hda? To enable the Swap space from partition.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.6 vi /etc/fstab
Write:
/dev/hda? /data ext3 defaults 1 2

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.7 edquota -u user1 /data and Specified the Soft limit and hard limit on opened file.
To verify either quota is working or not:
Soft limit specify the limit to generate warnings to users and hard limit can't cross by the user. Use the
quota command or repquota command to monitor the quota information.
3. One Logical Volume named lv1 is created under vg0. The Initial Size of that Logical Volume is 100MB.
Now you required the size 500MB. Make successfully the size of that Logical Volume 500M without losing
any data. As well as size should be increased online.
Answer and Explanation:
The LVM system organizes hard disks into Logical Volume (LV) groups. Essentially, physical hard disk
partitions (or possibly RAID arrays) are set up in a bunch of equalsized chunks known as Physical Extents
(PE). As there are several other concepts associated with the LVM system, let's start with some basic
definitions:
Physical Volume (PV) is the standard partition that you add to the LVM mix. Normally, a physical volume
is a standard primary or logical partition. It can also be a RAID array.
Physical Extent (PE) is a chunk of disk space. Every PV is divided into a number of equal sized PEs.
Every PE in a LV group is the same size. Different LV groups can have different sized PEs.
Logical Extent (LE) is also a chunk of disk space. Every LE is mapped to a specific PE.
Logical Volume (LV) is composed of a group of LEs. You can mount a filesystem such as /home and /var
on an LV.
Volume Group (VG) is composed of a group of LVs. It is the organizational group for LVM. Most of the
commands that you'll use apply to a specific VG.
1. Verify the size of Logical Volume: lvdisplay /dev/vg0/lv1
2. Verify the Size on mounted directory: df -h or df -h mounted directory name
3. Use : lvextend -L+400M /dev/vg0/lv1
4. ext2online -d /dev/vg0/lv1 to bring extended size online.
5. Again Verify using lvdisplay and df -h command.
4. Create one partitions having size 100MB and mount it on /data.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Use fdisk /dev/hda To create new partition.
2. Type n For New partitions
3. It will ask for Logical or Primary Partitions. Press l for logical.
4. It will ask for the Starting Cylinder: Use the Default by pressing Enter Key.
5. Type the Size: +100M You can Specify either Last cylinder of Size here.
6. Press P to verify the partitions lists and remember the partitions name.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.8 Quota is implemented on /data but not working properly. Find out the Problem and implement the quota
to user1 to have a soft limit 60 inodes (files) and hard limit of 70 inodes (files).
Answer and Explanation:
Quotas are used to limit a user's or a group of users' ability to consume disk space. This prevents a small
group of users from monopolizing disk capacity and potentially interfering with other users or the entire
system. Disk quotas are commonly used by ISPs, by Web hosting companies, on FTP sites, and on
corporate file servers to ensure continued availability of their systems.
Without quotas, one or more users can upload files on an FTP server to the point of filling a filesystem.
Once the affected partition is full, other users are effectively denied upload access to the disk. This is also
a reason to mount different filesystem directories on different partitions. For example, if you only had
partitions for your root (/) directory and swap space, someone uploading to your computer could fill up all
of the space in your root directory (/). Without at least a little free space in the root directory (/), your
system could become unstable or even crash.
You have two ways to set quotas for users. You can limit users by inodes or by kilobytesized disk blocks.
Every Linux file requires an inode. Therefore, you can limit users by the number of files or by absolute
space. You can set up different quotas for different filesystems. For example, you can set different quotas
for users on the /home and /tmp directories if they are mounted on their own partitions.
Limits on disk blocks restrict the amount of disk space available to a user on your system.
Older versions of Red Hat Linux included LinuxConf, which included a graphical tool to configure quotas.
As of this writing, Red Hat no longer has a graphical quota configuration tool. Today, you can configure
quotas on RHEL only through the command line interface.
1. vi /etc/fstab /dev/hda11 /data ext3 defaults,usrquota 1 2
2. Either Reboot the System or remount the partition.
Mount -o remount /dev/hda11 /data

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.9 Use mkfs -t ext3 /dev/hda?
Or
mke2fs -j /dev/hda? To create ext3 filesystem.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.10 Make Successfully Resolve to server1.example.com where DNS Server is 192.168.0.254.
Answer: 1. vi /etc/resolv.conf

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.11 Press w to write on partitions table.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.12 Reboot the System and verify that swap is automatically enabled or not.
10. You are a System administrator. Using Log files very easy to monitor the system. Now there are 50
servers running as Mail, Web, Proxy, DNS services etc. You want to centralize the logs from all servers
into on LOG Server. How will you configure the LOG Server to accept logs from remote host ?
Answer and Explanation:
By Default system accept the logs only generated from local host. To accept the Log
from other host configure:
1. vi /etc/sysconfig/syslog SYSLOGD_OPTIONS="-m 0 -r"
Where
-m 0 disables 'MARK' messages.
-r enables logging from remote machines
-x disables DNS lookups on messages recieved with -r
2. service syslog restart

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.13 mkswap /dev/hda? To create Swap File system on partition.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.14 touch /data/aquota.user

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NO.15 quotacheck -ufm /data

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

NO.16 free -m Verify Either Swap is enabled or not.

RedHat   RH-202   RH-202

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-051
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I)
Questions et réponses: 292 Q&As

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NO.1 Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT promo_name q'{'s start date was }' promo_begin_date
AS "Promotion Launches"
FROM promotions;
What would be the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error because flower braces have been used.
B. It produces an error because the data types are not matching.
C. It executes successfully and introduces an 's at the end of each promo_name in the output.
D. It executes successfully and displays the literal " {'s start date was } " for each row in the output.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051 examen   1Z0-051

NO.2 You need to extract details of those products in the SALES table where the PROD_ID column
contains the string '_D123'.
Which WHERE clause could be used in the SELECT statement to get the required output?
A. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '_'
B. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\'
C. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%_D123%' ESCAPE '%_'
D. WHERE prod_id LIKE '%\_D123%' ESCAPE '\_'
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-051   1Z0-051 examen

NO.3 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
You need to generate a report in the following format:
CATEGORIES
5MP Digital Photo Camera's category is Photo
Y Box's category is Electronics
Envoy Ambassador's category is Hardware
Which two queries would give the required output? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT prod_name q'''s category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
B. SELECT prod_name q'['s ]'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
C. SELECT prod_name q'\'s\' ' category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
D. SELECT prod_name q'<'s >' 'category is ' prod_category CATEGORIES
FROM products;
Answer: CD

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051   certification 1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.4 You need to produce a report where each customer's credit limit has been incremented by $1000. In
the output, t he customer's last name should have the heading Name and the incremented credit limit
should be labeled New Credit Limit. The column headings should have only the first letter of each word in
uppercase .
Which statement would accomplish this requirement?
A. SELECT cust_last_name Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
"New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT cust_last_name AS Name, cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS New Credit Limit
FROM customers;
C. SELECT cust_last_name AS "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
AS "New Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT INITCAP(cust_last_name) "Name", cust_credit_limit + 1000
INITCAP("NEW CREDIT LIMIT")
FROM customers;
Answer: C

certification Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051 examen

NO.5 View the Exhibit and examine the data in the CUSTOMERS table.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL> SELECT cust_name AS "NAME", cust_credit_limit/2 AS MIDPOINT,MIDPOINT+100 AS "MAX
LOWER LIMIT"
FROM customers;
The above query produces an error on execution.
What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression.
B. The a lias NAME should not be enclosed with in double quotation marks .
C. The MIDPOINT+100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL
values.
D. The a lias MIDPOINT should be enclosed with in double quotation marks for the
CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression .
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.6 View the Exhibit; e xamine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.
Each promotion has a duration of at least seven days .
Your manager has asked you to generate a report, which provides the weekly cost for each promotion
done to l date.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7
FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_name,(promo_cost/promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7
FROM promotions;
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/(promo_end_date-promo_begin_date/7)
FROM promotions;
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_cost/((promo_end_date-promo_begin_date)/7)
FROM promotions;
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.7 Evaluate the following query:
SELECT INTERVAL '300' MONTH,
INTERVAL '54-2' YEAR TO MONTH,
INTERVAL '11:12:10.1234567' HOUR TO SECOND
FROM dual;
What is the correct output of the above query?
A. +25-00 , +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
B. +00-300, +54-02, +00 11:12:10.123457
C. +25-00 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
D. +00-300 , +00-650, +00 11:12:10.123457
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-051   certification 1Z0-051   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.8 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PRODUCTS table.
All products have a list price.
You issue the following command to display the total price of each product after a discount of 25% and a
tax of 15% are applied on it. Freight charges of $100 have to be applied to all the products.
SQL>SELECT prod_name, prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))
+(prod_list_price -(prod_list_price*(25/100))*(15/100))+100
AS "TOTAL PRICE"
FROM products;
What would be the outcome if all the parenthese s are removed from the above statement?
A. It produces a syntax error.
B. The result remains unchanged.
C. The total price value would be lower than the correct value.
D. The total price value would be higher than the correct value.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051   1Z0-051

NO.9 Examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
name Null Type
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(6)
PROMO_NAME NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_CATEGORY NOT NULL VARCHAR2(30)
PROMO_COST NOT NULL NUMBER(10,2)
The management wants to see a report of unique promotion costs in each promotion category.
Which query would achieve the required result?
A. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, promo_category FROM promotions;
B. SELECT promo_category, DISTINCT promo_cost FROM promotions;
C. SELECT DISTINCT promo_cost, DISTINCT promo_category FROM promotions;
D. SELECT DISTINCT promo_category, promo_cost FROM promotions ORDER BY 1;
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-051   1Z0-051 examen   1Z0-051

NO.10 Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows 50% of each credit
amount in each income level. The report should NOT show any repeated credit amounts in each income
level.
Which query would give the required result?
A. SELECT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
B. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level, DISTINCT cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
C. SELECT DISTINCT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50
AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
D. SELECT cust_income_level ' ' cust_credit_limit * 0.50 AS "50% Credit Limit"
FROM customers;
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which SQL statements would display the value 1890.55 as $1,890.55? (Choose three .)
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$0G000D00')
FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$9,999V99')
FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99,999D99')
FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D00')
FROM DUAL;
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(1890.55,'$99G999D99')
FROM DUAL;
Answer: ADE

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NO.12 View the Exhibit to examine the description for the SALES table.
Which views can have all DML operations performed on it? (Choose all that apply.)
A. CREATE VIEW v3
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE cust_id = 2034
WITH CHECK OPTION;
B. CREATE VIEW v1
AS SELECT * FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
C. CREATE VIEW v2
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
WITH CHECK OPTION;
D. CREATE VIEW v4
AS SELECT prod_id, cust_id, SUM(quantity_sold) FROM SALES
WHERE time_id <= SYSDATE - 2*365
GROUP BY prod_id, cust_id
WITH CHECK OPTION;
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values.
B. Reversing the order of the intersected tables alters the result.
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical.
D. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. Both USING and ON clauses can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins.
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause.
C. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data
types.
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statements containing the
ON or the USING clause.
Answer: CD

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NO.15 View the E xhibit and examine the data in the EMPLOYEES table.
You want to generate a report showing the total compensation paid to each employee to date.
You issue the following query:
SQL>SELECT ename ' joined on ' hiredate
', the total compensation paid is '
TO_CHAR(ROUND(ROUND(SYSDATE-hiredate)/365) * sal + comm)
"COMPENSATION UNTIL DATE"
FROM employees;
What is the outcome?
A. It generates an error because the alias is not valid.
B. It executes successfully and gives the correct output.
C. It executes successfully but does not give the correct output.
D. It generates an error because the usage of the ROUND function in the expression is not valid.
E. It generates an error because the concatenation operator can be used to combine only two items.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which two statements are true regarding single row functions? (Choose two.)
A. They a ccept only a single argument.
B. They c an be nested only to two levels.
C. Arguments can only be column values or constants.
D. They a lways return a single result row for every row of a queried table.
E. They c an return a data type value different from the one that is referenced.
Answer: DE

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NO.17 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS, and TIMES
tables.
The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table.
Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the
CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.
Evaluate the following CREATE TABLE command:
CREATE TABLE new_sales(prod_id, cust_id, order_date DEFAULT SYSDATE)
AS
SELECT prod_id, cust_id, time_id
FROM sales;
Which statement is true regarding the above command?
A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the
column definition.
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified
columns would be passed to the new table.
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE
command and the SELECT clause do not match.
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the
specified columns would be passed to the new table.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Examine the structure of the SHIPMENTS table:
name Null Type
PO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER(3)
PO_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_DATE NOT NULL DATE
SHIPMENT_MODE VARCHAR2(30)
SHIPMENT_COST NUMBER(8,2)
You want to generate a report that displays the PO_ID and the penalty amount to be paid if the
SHIPMENT_DATE is later than one month from the PO_DATE. The penalty is $20 per day.
Evaluate the following two queries:
SQL> SELECT po_id, CASE
WHEN MONTHS_BETWEEN (shipment_date,po_date)>1 THEN
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20) ELSE 'No Penalty' END PENALTY
FROM shipments;
SQL>SELECT po_id, DECODE
(MONTHS_BETWEEN (po_date,shipment_date)>1,
TO_CHAR((shipment_date - po_date) * 20), 'No Penalty') PENALTY
FROM shipments;
Which statement is true regarding the above commands?
A. Both execute successfully and give correct results.
B. Only the first query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
C. Only the first query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
D. Only the second query executes successfully but gives a wrong result.
E. Only the second query executes successfully and gives the correct result.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose
three.)
A. Only one LONG column can be used per table.
B. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds.
C. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file.
D. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one.
E. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width.
Answer: ADE

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NO.20 View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table.
Which two tasks would require subqueries or joins to be executed in a single statement? (Choose two.)
A. listing of customers who do not have a credit limit and were born before 1980
B. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose marital status is 'married'
C. finding the average credit limit of male customers residing in 'Tokyo' or 'Sydney'
D. listing of those customers whose credit limit is the same as the credit limit of customers residing in the
city 'Tokyo'
E. finding the number of customers, in each city, whose credit limit is more than the average credit limit of
all the customers
Answer: DE

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-035
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle9i dba new features for Oracle7.3 and Oracle9 ocps)
Questions et réponses: 168 Q&As

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NO.1 Which type of index should be created to spread the distribution of index updates across the
index tree?
A.B-tree indexes
B.bitmap indexes
C.reverse-key indexes
D.function-based indexes
Correct:C

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.2 Which CREATE TABLE parameter should you be concerned with if the length of rows in an
index-organized table vary over a wide range of values?
A.PCTFREE
B.PCTUSED
C.PCTINCREASE
D.PCTTHRESHOLD
Correct:D

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.3 Online index rebuild functionality has been extended to include which four index structures?
(Choose four.)
A.bitmap indexes
B.reverse key indexes
C.function-based indexes
D.key-compressed indexes on regular tables
E.key-compressed indexes on IOT (including secondary indexes)
Correct:B C D E

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.4 Which two are true regarding external tables? (Choose two.)
A.External tables can be updated.
B.External tables are read-only tables.
C.Indexes can be created on external tables.
D.Indexes cannot be created on external tables.
Correct:B D

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.5 Which four are true regarding the Workspace Manager in Oracle9i? (Choose four.)
A.automatically versions all tables
B.automatically installed with Oracle9i
C.merges changes with parent rows or discards changes
D.provides mechanism to identify and resolve conflicts
E.allows for version enabling tables by use of a packaged procedure
Correct:B C D E

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.6 What statement is true about taking a database default temporary tablespace offline?
A.You cannot take a default temporary tablespace offline.
B.The database must be quiesced before you perform this action.
C.You must ensure that all users are assigned to an alternative temporary tablespace first.
D.You must first ensure that the default temporary tablespace has the permanent tablespace
characteristic.
Correct:A

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.7 What is one benefit of using the ALTER TABLE ... MOVE command rather than a CREATE
TABLE ... AS SELECT command?
A.row chaining is eliminated.
B.index definitions are retained.
C.duplicate space is not required while the command executes.
D.all operations, such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, and SELECT can be performed while the
operation completes.
Correct:B

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.8 In order to speed foreign key creation, Oracle9i will cache the first _____ primary key values
only where there are multirow DML statements.
A.32
B.128
C.256
D.512
Correct:C

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.9 Consider the following scenario using incremental backups. A level 1 backup is taken on the
first of the month. A level 2 backup is taken every Sunday, and a level 3 backup is taken daily. If
the database gets corrupted on the second Wednesday of the month and is lost, which scenario
would restore the database completely?
A.the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
B.the monthly backup (level 1) and the daily backup (level 3)
C.a base level backup (level 0) is missing and nothing can be recovered
D.the monthly backup (level 1), the weekly backup (level 2) and the daily backup (level 3)
Correct:C

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.10 Which type of ROWID does Oracle use for global indexes on partitioned tables?
A.local
B.extended
C.restricted
Correct:B

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.11 What criterion does Oracle9i use to determine whether a database file is an Oracle Managed File?
A.the filename format
B.information stored inside a data dictionary table
C.information stored in the ALERT.LOG file for the corresponding instance
D.information stored inside the corresponding initialization parameter file for the instance
Correct:A

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.12 What do you need to do in order for the Database Resource Manager to estimate, in advance,
the execution time of a statement?
A.Set the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
B.Gather optimizer statistics on related objects.
C.Set the TIMED_OS_STATISTICS initialization parameter.
D.Nothing
Correct:B

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.13 What is true about version-enabled tables?
A.The unit of versioning is the schema.
B.It is possible to version enable a table pertaining to SYS.
C.There are as many segments as versions for the same base table.
D.It is possible to create workspaces if there is no version-enabled table in the database.
Correct:D

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.14 Which two statements about dimensions are true? (Choose two.)
A.A hierarchy can consist of multiple levels.
B.A dimension can be based on multiple tables.
C.A dimension can contain only a single hierarchy.
D.No special privileges are required to create a dimension.
Correct:A B

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.15 Which three features are provided by Recovery Manager and NOT provided by user-managed
backup and recovery? (Choose three.)
A.online backups
B.skipping unused blocks
C.partial database backups
D.incremental block-level backup
E.detection of corrupted blocks during backup
Correct:B D E

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.16 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.Composite partitioning enables you to prevent partition elimination.
B.Composite partitioning supports hash partitioned global indexes.
C.Composite partitioning is ideal for both historical data and data placement.
D.Composite partitioning provides high performance and manageability, like range partitioning.
Correct:C D

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.17 Users complain that SQL statements using a particular index fail. Using DBVERIFY, you find
that two separate blocks in the index have become corrupt. The database data files for user data
and index are very large. What is the least disruptive recovery strategy available in Oracle9i?
A.Rebuild the index using the online option.
B.Take the individual data file offline (not the whole tablespace), restore and recover the data file from
backup with RMAN, then set the data file online again.
C.Without setting the individual data file offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to restore and
recover only those blocks.
D.Take the individual data file (not the whole tablespace) offline, use RMAN with Block Media Recovery to
restore and recover only those blocks, then set the data file online again.
Correct:C

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.18 In the Oracle9i Data Guard architecture, what is the purpose of the Log Transport Services?
A.to transfer redo log information to one or more destinations
B.to apply redo log records sent from the primary database to a standby database at the receiving
location
C.to synchronize changes to the control files on all standby databases with changes on the primary
database when a log switch occurs
D.to batch archived log files on the primary database until a defined number of checkpoints have been
processed and then to distribute the archives to each standby database
Correct:A

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.19 Examine the statement: DROP TABLESPACE IND2 INCLUDING CONTENTS AND DATAFILES;
What is the result of the statement?
A.The contents and data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are dropped.
B.The statement will only succeed if the IND2 tablespace was built using Oracle-Managed Files (OMF)
data files.
C.The statement will only succeed if the data files belonging to the IND2 tablespace are Oracle-Managed
Files (OMF) or if the database was created using OMF.
D.The contents of the tablespace are dropped along with all its data files except those identified with the
Oracle-Managed Files (OMF) naming convention.
Correct:A

Oracle examen   1Z0-035   certification 1Z0-035   1Z0-035

NO.20 Consider the following statement: SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_SCHEMA_STATS (- 2>
ownname => 'OE', - 3> estimate_percent => DBMS_STATS.AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE, - 4> method_opt
=> 'for all columns size AUTO'); What is the effect of 'for all columns size AUTO' of the
METHOD_OPT option?
A.The Oracle server creates a new histogram based on existing histogram definitions for all table, column,
and index statistics for the OE schema.
B.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution regardless of how the application
uses the column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
C.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on data distribution and application usage of the
column/s for all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
D.The Oracle server creates a histogram based on application usage, regardless of data distribution, for
all table, column, and index statistics for the OE schema.
Correct:C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-241
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Develper I: PeopleTools and PeopleCode)
Questions et réponses: 192 Q&As

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NO.1 Select the three true statements regarding search keys. (Choose three.) A.Search key fields are
indexed.
A.Search key fields are indexed.
B.Search key fields appear on the search page.
C.A field can be a search key even if it is not a key.
D.Selecting the Search Key option automatically selects the List Box Item option.
E.If an existing key field is changed to a search key, you must alter or rebuild the table.
F.The search key property is irrelevant if the record definition is not used as a search record.
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 View the Exhibit.
As the component processor loads a component, it executes PeopleCode programs according to buffer
allocation rules.
Each row in the table represents a PeopleCode program and its associated definition, scroll level, and
event. In what order will the programs execute?
A.A, B, C, D, E
B.C, A, D, E,B
C.C, E,A, D, B
D.E, C, A, B, D
E.E, D, C, B, A
Answer: D

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NO.3 What type of PeopleCode looping construct will loop a specified number of times?
A.For
B.While
C.Do While
D.Do Until
E.Repeat-For
Answer: A

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NO.4 Select the three statements that are true about search records. (Choose three.)
A.Search records build the search page for the component.
B.Search records are referenced only at level zero in the component.
C.Search records rarely reference views; they are usually SQL tables.
D.Search records populate level zero on all pages that are in the component.
E.Search records provide a high-level key to the primary records that are referenced in the component.
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.5 View the Exhibit.
Select the page that most likely uses this subpage.
A.
A.
A
B.
C
D
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.6 Which two PeopleCode events are part of the field action event set? (Choose two.)
A.FieldEdit
B.SystemEdit
C.FieldDefault
D.FieldFormula
E.FieldChange
F.RecordDefault
Answer: AE

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.7 On the Process Scheduler Request page, you have to define the output type for your job or process.
Which three statements are true regarding the process output type? (Choose three.)
A.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level carries through to the job items.
B.When an output type is selected for a process at the process definition level, it can be changed.
C.An output type that is selected for a job at the main job level does not carry through to the job items.
D.An output type that is selected for individual job items overwrites the output type that is entered for the
parent job.
E.An output type that is selected for individual processes or jobs that are attached to a job cannot override
the tput type that is entered for the parent job.
F.An output type that is selected for a process at the process definition level overwrites the output type in
the Process Scheduler Request page, and the Type drop-down list box in the Process Scheduler Request
page becomes unavailable.
Answer: ADF

certification Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.8 Select the three properties that you can maintain in a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose three.)
A.Triggers
B.PeopleCode
C.Column order
D.Record field length
E.Query Security record
F.Prompt Security record
Answer: BCE

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.9 When considering key structure, which three options are mutually exclusive? (Choose three.)
A.Key
B.Search Key
C.Descending Key
D.Alternate Search Key
E.Duplicate Order Key
Answer: ADE

certification Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241

NO.10 Select the most efficient way to determine the effect of modifying a definition.
A.Examine the SQL in the PeopleTools tables.
B.Use the XREF reports and visually examine the modifications.
C.Use the Find Definition Reference utility in Application Designer.
D.Use the Cross Reference utility in the PeopleTools, Utilities folder.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Examine this PeopleCode snippet
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_EMPLOYEE;
Local Field &Fld_ROLE;
&RS_LEVEL0 = GetLevel0();
&ROW_LEVEL0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_LEVEL1 = &ROW_LEVEL0.GetRowSet(SCROLL.DEPT);
&ROW_LEVEL1 = &RS_LEVEL1(1);
&REC_EMPLOYEE = &ROW_LEVEL1.EMPLOYEE;
&FLD_EMPID = &REC_TASKRSRC.EMPID;
&ID = &FLD_EMPID.Value;
Can the code given above be replaced with the following statement?
&ID = GetField().Value
A. No. The record must be specified.
B.No. The row and record must be specified.
C.Yes, if the code is placed on the current row
D.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPID field.
E.Yes, if the code is placed on the EMPLOYEE record.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241

NO.12 Select the two properties of a summary page. (Choose two.)
A.It is display-only.
B.It contains only level zero.
C.It contains no related fields.
D.It references one record definition.
Answer: AC

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NO.13 View the Exhibit.
Based on this Build dialog box, select the two options that are true. (Choose two.)
A.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables are created.
B.When you click the Build button, nothing happens to your database.
C.When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables may lose existing data.
D.When you click the Build button, the TS_INSTSCHD_VW view is created.
E.When you click the Build button, Application Designer generates a script file.
Answer: BE

Oracle   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.14 Select three changes to a record definition that require you to rebuild the SQL table. (Choose three.)
A.You change the label of a key field.
B.You deselect the Search Key check box.
C.You change the length of a non-key field.
D.You deselect the Alternate Search Key check box.
E.You change an ascending key to a descending key.
Answer: CDE

Oracle   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241

NO.15 Select the three true statements about PeopleSoft field definitions. (Choose three.)
A.All PeopleSoft field definition names are in uppercase.
B.Date, Time, and DateTime fields all have a fixed length.
C.When you work with Number and Signed Number field types, the sum of integer and decimal positions
cannot
D.Altering an existing field definition's default label can have consequences at both the record definition
level and the page definition level.E.For a Long Character field, enter a field length of 256 to enable the
database platform to determine the maximum length of the field.
Answer: ABD

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241

NO.16 For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the
EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A.The program updates multiple database tables.
B.The program validates data across multiple records.
C.Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D.The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this
component.
E.The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the
component.
F.The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each
record.
G.Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution
on other components.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.17 View the Exhibit.
You create this record definition and use Application Designer to complete a successful SQL build. Select
the four true statements regarding the SQL build. (Choose four.)
A.At least one index is created.
B.Related language tables are updated.
C.Data is written to the system catalog tables.
D.The DATE field is designated as NOT NULL.
E.The REVIEW_DAYS field is designated as NOT NULL. F.The prefix PS_ is inserted at the beginning of
the table name.
Answer: ACEF

Oracle   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241 examen

NO.18 Select the record definition that is configured correctly.
A.
B,
C.
D.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.19 Select the two field types that should be placed at the end of a PeopleSoft record definition. (Choose
two.)
A.Image
B.Prompt
C.Character
D.Attachment
E.Long character
F.ImageReference
Answer: AE

certification Oracle   1Z0-241 examen   certification 1Z0-241   1Z0-241   1Z0-241

NO.20 View the Exhibits.
Based on this page layout and page order, select the two true statements about this page definition.
(Choose two.)
A.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved without error.
B.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a related field error.
C.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page contains a parent/child design error.
D.The TS_EMP_REVIEW page is saved with a duplicate record field warning.
Answer: CD

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