2013年11月2日星期六

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-610
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Siebel CRM OnDemand 2006 administrator Exam)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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NO.1 Siebel CRM OnDemand calculates expected revenue based on the probability associated with the
sales stage and the opportunity revenue. Using the sales stage probabilities below, what is the expected
revenue of a $100,000 opportunity in the Qualified Lead stage?
Qualified Lead = 30%Building Vision = 50%Short List = 70%Negotiation = 90%Closed/Won = 100%
A.$3,000
B.$70,000
C.$30,000
D.$100,000
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-610   1Z0-610

NO.2 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment going down, negatively
affecting his business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel CRM
OnDemand is designed for High Availability? Choose three.
A.Clustered servers
B.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
C.Load Balancing
D.Database de-normalization
E.JavaScript usage
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 Which of the following settings are available to the Administrator for setting sign-in and password
controls? Choose three.
A.Maximum number of sign-in attempts allowed
B.New password must be different from old password checkbox
C.Alpha-numeric password required checkbox
D.Minimum password length requirement
E.Maximum password length requirement
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 Your company has decided to change the password requirements and force new policies into effect
immediately. As the Administrator, what must you do?
A.Click the Reset All Passwords button on the company Profile, and then modify the password controls.
B.Modify the password controls and distribute new default passwords to all users.
C.Modify the password controls only. Changes take effect with each users next login.
D.Modify the password controls and then click the Reset All Passwords button on the Company Profile.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Bill Williams is a manager of a sales team. His role gives him Read/Create default access to accounts.
Jane Jones is a sales representative who reports to Bill Williams. Her role gives her Create-Only default
access to accounts, and Read/Edit/Delete owner access. Jane owns the ACE Industries account record
in Siebel CRM OnDemand.
Jane changes the owner on the ACE Industries account to Frank Ford, a sales representative who does
not report to Bill Williams, but to a sales manager on another team. What kind of access does Jane now
have to the ACE Industries record?
A.No Access
B.Read/Create
C.Read/Edit/Delete
D.Read-Only
Answer: A

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NO.6 By default, how are sales quotas tracked in CRM OnDemand?
A.Quotas are tracked on the Sales Quota Dashboard
B.Quotas are tracked on the My Sales Quota Report
C.Quotas are tracked through automatically generated forecasts
D.Quotas are tracked on the Opportunities screen
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-610   1Z0-610

NO.7 What happens if you do not map every field in your source file during an import?
A.You receive a warning message, but can choose to continue without mapping the non-required fields
B.The Next button on the mapping step does not become active until all fields are mapped
C.You do not receive an alert, but no records will get imported into CRM OnDemand
D.You receive an alert, and cannot continue until all required and non-required fields are mapped
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment performing slowly,
negatively affecting her business. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that
Siebel CRM OnDemand is designed for High Performance? Choose three.
A.Load Balancing
B.Extensive JavaScript usage
C.Redundancy within the hardware and network components
D.Database caching
E.Extensive indexing
Answer: ADE

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NO.9 The first task in administering a company is verifying and updating the information contained in the
company profile. Where does the company information contained in the company profile initially come
from?
A.Information gathered from the .ini files installed on the users computer
B.Information provided during the initial sign-up for Siebel CRM OnDemand
C.Information provided by the account executive from Siebel
D.There is no information in the company profile before the Administrator updates the profile
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your customer is concerned about the Siebel CRM OnDemand environment providing the necessary
security to protect their data. Which of the following can you cite to reassure your customer that Siebel
CRM OnDemand is designed for High Security? Choose three.
A.Reliable high-bandwidth Internet access
B.Single-layer LAN architecture to isolate data
C.128-bit encryption through secure socket layer (SSL)
D.System of Wireless networks providing WiFi access points
E.Anti-virus protection at the server-level
Answer: ACE

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-242
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (PeopleSoft Application Developer II: App Engine and Integration)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 You add a dynamic call to an Application Engine program following these steps:
1. Add the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION to the state record if they are not already present.
2. Build the state record.
3. Verify that the state record is the default state record for the Application Engine program.
4. In a PeopleCode action, use a conditional test to populate the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION
with an Application Engine program name and section name, respectively.
5. Following the PeopleCode action, add a Call Section action.
Select the correct statement.
A. The Application Engine program will execute as expected.
B. Step 2 is not needed for dynamic call.
C. Step 3 is not needed.
D. Add a step after step 5 to insert a SQL action that will use the values in the state record to populate the
Program and Section fields of the Application Engine Call Section action.
E. Add a step after step 5 to select the Dynamic Call check box in the Call Section action.
F. Step 4 is wrong. The PeopleCode program should use the AESection class to issue the dynamic call.
Answer: E

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NO.2 You want to examine the component buffer for the Customer Orders (PSU_CUST_ORDER )
component. Which four steps are necessary? (Choose four.)
A. Start the PeopleCode Debugger and set a breakpoint.
B. Access the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER component.
C. In Application Designer, select Component Buffers.
D. Access the Customer Orders component in the browser and trigger the breakpoint. Return to
PeopleSoft Application Designer when the breakpoint triggers.
E. Open, or create, a PeopleCode program that will execute while Customer Orders is running in the
browser.
F. Drill down through the component hierarchy in the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER
component.
G. In Application Designer, select Debug, View Component Buffers.
Answer: ADEG

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NO.3 The Get Student Enrollments page uses a PeopleCode program to select and display rows based on
user input. When the user clicks Refresh, FieldChange PeopleCode populates a stand-alone rowset
using a Select method. When you test the program, the new rows are appended to the previous rows
instead of replacing them. How do you fix this problem?
A. Use a work scroll instead of a stand-alone rowset.
B. Add &Rowset.Flush(); after the Select method.
C. Use an Update method instead of a Select method.
D. Add &Rowset.Flush(); before the Select method.
E. Add &Rowset.Refresh (); after the Select method.
F. Add &Rowset.Refresh(); before the Select method.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-242   1Z0-242

NO.4 A Process Scheduler process is configured to run an Application Engine program. You need to modify
the process to use parameters entered by the user at run time. Which four additional steps do you need to
take? (Choose four.)
A. Create a process type for the new process.
B. Add bind variables to the command-line parameters.
C. Write a PeopleCode program to pass the parameters.
D. Create a state record with fields to pass input parameters.
E. Create a run control page with fields to enter the input parameters.
F. Create a run control record with fields to store the input parameters.
G. Modify the Application Engine program to retrieve the input parameters.
Answer: DEFG

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NO.5 View the Exhibit.
Your client is upgrading its purchasing application to use object-oriented PeopleCode to incorporate the
benefits of application classes.
The PeopleCode for the Purchase Order application is now encapsulated in an Application Package
called PSU_PO. The assign_order_nbr function is now ORDER_NBR, a method of the ORDER class.
You are tasked with modifying this program to call the new ORDER_NBR method.
Which four PeopleCode statements will you use in the new program? (Choose four.)
A. Class PSU_PO:ORDER;
B. &New.ORDER_NBR(PSU_PO_HDR.ORDER_NBR);
C. Import PSU_PO:ORDER;
D. Declare method PSU_PO:ORDER:ORDER_NBR;
E. &New = Create Order();
F. Local ORDER &New;
G. Method ORDER_NBR (&ORDER_NBR As Field out);
Answer: BCEF

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NO.6 The Customer Orders page uses data from the ITEM table to perform price calculations. You decide to
write a PeopleCode program to create a stand-alone rowset that will load data from the ITEM table into
the data buffer. Select three PeopleCode statements that can be used with stand-alone rowsets. (Choose
three.)
A. &RS_Item = GetRowSet(SCROLL.ITEM);
B. &RS_Item = CreateRowSet(RECORD.ITEM);
C. &Price = &RS_Item(&i).ITEM.PRICE.Value;
D. &RS_Item.Select("Where ITEM = :1", CUST_ORDER.ITEM);
E. &RS_Item.Fill("Where CUST_TYPE = :1", CUST_ORDER.TYPE);
F. &RS_Item = ScrollSelect(1,Scroll.ITEM, Record.ITEM, ("Where CUST_TYPE = :1", CUST_ORDER.
CUST_TYPE);
Answer: BCE

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NO.7 You want to see exactly when a PeopleCode program fires in the context of the Component Processor
flow. Which two methods will work? (Choose two.)
A. Insert a Print() statement in the program.
B. Insert a WinMessage() statement in the program.
C. Insert a MessageCatalog() statement in the program.
D. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and insert a breakpoint on the program.
E. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and select Debug, View Component Buffers.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 View the Exhibit.
An object-oriented PeopleCode program traverses the data buffer to get the value for Session Number
(SESSION_NBR) in the Session Details record (PSU_CRS_SESSN) on the Course Sessions page.
The program uses a built-in function to instantiate the Level 0 object, then uses object methods to
instantiate the remaining data buffer objects.
Select the option that represents the order in which the program instantiates the data buffer objects.
A. &Row_Level0, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field
B. &Rowset_Level0, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
C. &Rowset_Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
D. &Rowset_Level0, &Row _Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-242   1Z0-242

NO.9 View the Exhibit.
A PeopleCode program at level 0 checks the values for Percent Available (PCT_AVAILABLE) at level 1.
Analyze this code snippet.
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_TaskRsrc;
Local Field & Fld_PctAvail ;
&RS_Level0 = GetLevel0();
&Row_Level0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC);
&Row_Level1 = &RS_Level1.GetRow(1);
&Rec_TaskRsrc = &Row_Level1.GetRecord(Record.PSU_Task_RSRC);
&Fld_PctAvail = &Rec_TaskRsrc.GetField(Field.PCT_AVAILABLE);
&Pct = &Fld_PctAvail.Value;
Select the correct option.
A. The program will produce the expected results.
B. The program is missing a loop to process each row in the level 1 rowset.
C. The program is missing a loop to process each rowset in the level 1 row.
D. The program can be simplified to:
&Pct = &RS_Level0.PSU_Task_RSRC.PCT_AVAILABLE.Value;
E. This line of code is not needed:
&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC);
F. The &RS_Level0 = GetLevel0(); function is missing the Level 0 scroll name.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An Application Engine program uses a Do Select action. What occurs when the Select statement is
executed?
A. Each row returned by the Select statement is stored in the state record. The Select statement
continues until no more rows are returned. Then, the control passes to the calling section.
B. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. Then, the control is passed to the
calling section.
C. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to
the next section in the program.
D. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. The first row is stored in the state
record. Then, the remaining actions in the step are processed sequentially. Thereafter, the control returns
to the Do Select to fetch another row, until no more rows are returned.
E. When a row is returned, the remaining steps in the section execute and control returns to the calling
step.
F. When a row is returned, it is stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to the calling section.
Answer: D

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NO.11 View the Exhibit.
On the Employee Review page, you have a business rule with these requirements:
1. If Review Type is Supervisor, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns only supervisors.
2. If Review Type is Peer or Performance, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns all employees.
Select the three steps required to implement this business rule. (Choose three.)
A. Associate the REVIEWER_ID field with REVIEWER_VW.
B. Create REVIEWER_VW as a dynamic view of the EMPLOYEE table.
C. Add the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field to the page and make it invisible.
D. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to REVIEWER_VW.
E. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to DERIVED.%EDITTABLE.
F. Use a SQL Select statement in PeopleCode to populate the REVIEWER_VW view.
G. Use a conditional statement in PeopleCode to populate the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field.
Answer: CEG

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NO.12 An Application Engine program inserts rows into PS_VENDOR.
The program encounters an error and abends (ends abnormally).
You correct the error, but now PS_VENDOR is in an unknown state.
Select the correct statement.
A. If Log File was enabled in Configuration Manager, a script file was created that you use to return the
database to its original state. After you correct the error, you can run the program again.
B. If Recover was enabled for the program, the changes to PS_VENDOR are rolled back. After you
correct the error, you can run the program again.
C. If Restart was enabled for the program, a checkpoint was saved with the last commit. After you correct
the error, you can restart the program and processing will resume from the point of the last commit.
D. If Resume was enabled in PeopleSoft Process Scheduler, the program automatically resumes
processing after the condition that caused the error is corrected.
E. If a state record was defined for the program, PS_VENDOR is restored based on parameters that were
written to the state record. Then you can restart the program using the same run control parameters.
Answer: C

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NO.13 View the Exhibit.
This run control page executes an Application Engine program that updates the Course table using the
parameters entered by a user.
In addition to the run control page, which three elements must be in place? (Choose three.)
A. A state record with fields to hold input parameters
B. Component variables to pass the input parameters
C. A data buffer object to retrieve the input parameters
D. Application Engine SQL to retrieve the input parameters
E. A PeopleCode record object to update the Course table
F. A Process Instance table to store run control parameters
G. A run control record with fields to store the input parameters
Answer: ADG

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NO.14 How do you configure Process Scheduler to initiate an Application Engine trace for SQL and Step?
A. Add %%TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%% to the parameter list for the Process Type.
B. On the Run Control page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
C. On the Process Monitor page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
D. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter
-TRACE 3.
E. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter -TRACE
SQL STEP.
F. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and
enter %%TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%%.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-242   1Z0-242   1Z0-242

NO.15 Examine the join in this Select statement:
SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE A.TASK = B.TASK
AND A.RESOURCE = B.RESOURCE
Select the equivalent Select statement.
A. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(A.TASK, B.RESOURCE)
B. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Common(PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
C. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Common(KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
D. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B
WHERE %Join(COMMON_KEYS, TASK A, EFFORT_AMT B)
E. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT
FROM %Join(COMMON_KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-242   1Z0-242

NO.16 An Application Engine program requires a loop that will exit after 1000 rows have been processed.
The COUNTER field in the state record is incremented in each iteration of the loop. Which option contains
code that could be used in a Do While action to test for COUNTER?
A. Do While %Bind(Counter) < 1000
B. %SELECT (COUNTER)
FROM PS_INSTALLATION
Where COUNTER < 1000
C. If %Bind(Counter) >= 1000 then
Exit;
D. %Select(COUNTER)
FROM PS_STATE_AET
Where COUNTER < 1000
E. %Select(COUNTER)
SELECT 'X'
FROM PS_INSTALLATION
WHERE %Bind(COUNTER) < 1000;
Answer: E

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NO.17 Here is a snippet of PeopleCode that uses the Fetch method of the SQL class.
&SQL = CreateSQL("Select EFFORT_AMT from PS_PSU_TASK_EFFORT where TASK= :1",
PSU_TASK_TBL.TASK);
&Var1 = &SQL.Fetch(&Var2);
Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. &Var2 specifies which row to fetch.
B. &Var2 specifies which field to fetch.
C. &Var1 is populated with TRUE if a row is fetched.
D. &Var1 is populated with the number of rows returned.
E. &Var2 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
F. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
G. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the first row returned.
Answer: CE

Oracle   1Z0-242 examen   1Z0-242   1Z0-242

NO.18 You modify an Application Engine program to use parallel processing with temporary tables.
The Application Engine program includes this code snippet, which is part of a SQL statement that inserts
rows into a temporary table.
INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP
What changes do you need to make to the code so that the Application Engine program will implement
parallel processing properly?
A. No changes to the code are needed as long as the temporary table has been properly configured for
parallel processing.
B. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP so that the
meta-SQL resolves to the correct state record at run time.
C. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the system variables resolve to the correct syntax at run time.
D. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the meta-SQL resolves to the correct temporary table instance at run time.
E. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Temp(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that
the meta-SQL resolves to the correct syntax and temporary table instance at run time.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Select three Application Engine action types that can be used to control program flow. (Choose three.)
A. Log Message
B. Call Section
C. XSLT
D. PeopleCode
E. Do While
F. Evaluate
Answer: BDE

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NO.20 Evaluate this PeopleCode snippet.
Local Array of Number &MyArray;
Local Any &Len, &Result;
&MyArray = CreateArray(3);
&MyArray[1] = 100;
&MyArray[2] = 200;
&MyArray[3] = 300;
&Result = &MyArray.POP();
&Len = &MyArray.LEN;
&End = &MyArray[&Len];
What are the correct values for &Result and &End?
A. &Result is 300
&End is 200
B. &Result is 300
&End is Null
C. &Result is 300
&End is 300
D. &Result is Null
&End is 300
E. &Result is 100
&End is 300
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-226
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12: Inventory and Order Management Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 302 Q&As

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NO.1 PTO Kits consist of _____.
A. a standard BOM
B. a configurable BOM
C. a standard BOM with mandatory included options
D. a configurable BOM with mandatory included options
E. an engineering BOM with mandatory included options
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.2 The client requires that cycle counts are entered by the warehouse stafF. However, only the
warehouse manager can schedule counts, generate count requests, and approve the counts that are out
of tolerancE. What should you consider when setting up the cycle counting process? (Choose threE. )
A. the frequency of the recounts required
B. the number of automatic recounts required
C. the tolerance level for automatic adjustment
D. Modify the workday calendar used by the warehousE.
E. the responsibility that has access to the Approve Counts function
F. the number of serial and/or lot controlled items included in the count
Answer: BCE

Oracle   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.3 What are the three necessary setup steps to enable system credit checking on an order? (Choose
threE. )
A. Assign a credit rule to the order type being useD.
B. Select a warehouse that has credit checking enableD.
C. Enable the Credit Card Security Code system parameter.
D. Use a payment term for which the Credit check box is enableD.
E. Define the customer profile so that the Credit check box is selecteD.
F. Make sure that there is at least one defaulting rule enabled for credit checkinG.
Answer: ADE

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.4 Identify three correct statements regarding customer acceptance setups. (Choose threE. )
A. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the inventory organization level.
B. For enabling customer acceptance, no setup is required in OM.
C. Customer acceptance can be enabled at the OM operating-unit level.
D. Define assignment rules for deferral reasons at the customer, site, or item level.
E. The first step to enable customer acceptance is to set the OM system parameter: Enable Fulfillment
AcceptancE.
F. The second step of the customer acceptance setup is to define customer acceptance deferral reasons
in the AR revenue management setup.
Answer: CEF

certification Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226 examen

NO.5 ACME attempts the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been bookeD.
Which three options are valid? (Choose threE. )
A. Run the Auto Allocate process.
B. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process.
C. Run the Interface Trip Stop process.
D. Use the Standard Report Submission process (SRS).
E. Execute Online from the Release Sales Order window.
F. Run a concurrent program from the Release Sales Order window.
Answer: DEF

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226 examen   1Z0-226 examen

NO.6 XYZ is a chemical manufacturing company. On a daily basis, it produces 100 kilos of Item A from a
single production batcH.
100 kilos of item A manufactured from a single batch has a single expiration datE. However, the purity
of item A varies as follows:
Category 1: 95%
Category 2: 85%
Category 3: 50%
From an implementation perspective, which setup or process would meet this requirement?
A. Enable lot control. Map three categories as coproducts.
B. Enable lot control for item A. Create three lots to represent the categories.
C. Enable lot control for item A. Create three child lots and link them with the parent lot.
D. Enable lot and grade control for item A. Have three categories mapped with grades.
E. Enable lot and serial control for item A. Create one lot and three categories that are mapped with
serial numbers.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.7 Weight and physical dimensions are examples of ____.
A. an item attribute
B. an item parameter
C. an item profile option
D. an item master characteristic
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-226 examen   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226

NO.8 The Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method should be selected when _____.
A. trend demand patterns are greater than alpha ()
B. seasonal demand patterns are greater than
C. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are equal to zero
D. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are less than
E. both trend and seasonal demand patterns are greater than
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.9 A user informs you about the inability to create a requisition using category 110.33. The Purchasing
category structure is set up as Item Category.Commodity.
The user has described the problem as follows:
"I am able to select 110 for the item category and 33 for the commodity, but when I click OK I receive an
error." Identify two reasons for the error. (Choose two.)
A. The commodity 33 has been deactivateD.
B. The item category 110 has been deactivateD.
C. The category 110.33 is not assigned to a buyer.
D. Category 110.33 is not set up in the categories form.
E. 110.33 is not assigned to the Purchasing category set.
F. 110.33 has not been added to the appropriate value set.
G. Allow Dynamic Inserts is not checked for the Purchasing category flexfielD.
Answer: DE

Oracle examen   1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226 examen

NO.10 You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to
meet the client's needs.
You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential
Smoothing after one year.
Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to
re-evaluate the forecasting methoD.
What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?
A. Focus Forecasting
B. Exponential Smoothing
C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients
E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients
Answer: C

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NO.11 Your client has an item that is used globally. The site in Colorado is evaluating a local source for the
item. The buyer requires the incoming goods from the local source to be separated from the goods
received from nonlocal sources.
Which three actions should be performed to meet this requirement? (Choose threE. )
A. Enter the item in the subinventory form.
B. Modify master item attributes to default a subinventory.
C. Change the PO Line receipt routing to Inspection RequireD.
D. Modify organization item attributes to default a subinventory.
E. Create a separate subinventory to stock goods from the local sourcE.
F. Create item transaction default for the item in the Item Master Organization.
G. Insert a separate subinventory on the purchase order and attach Receiver Notes.
H. Ensure that you do not create an item transaction default for the item in the Inventory Organization.
Answer: EGH

Oracle examen   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226

NO.12 You are implementing inventory and plan to use Focus ForecastinG.
Focus Forecasting assumes that the forecasting method that worked best for the previous period _____
and _____. (Choose two.)
A. will be best for the current period
B. was based on heuristic processes
C. was based on stochastic processes
D. will result from comparing five forecast methods
E. will use the method that yields the greatest absolute percentage error (APE)
Answer: AD

Oracle   certification 1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.13 Oracle Inventory interacts with other Oracle applications by sharing information.
Choose two pieces of information that Oracle Payables, Receivables, and Costing applications receive
from the Inventory modulE. (Choose two.)
A. Item information
B. UOM information
C. On-hand information
D. ATP supply information
E. Transaction accounting detail information
Answer: AB

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226 examen

NO.14 Each UOM class must have a base unit specifieD.
Which represents a base unit for the UOM Class Quantity?
A. One
B. Each
C. Case
D. Gross
E. Dozen
Answer: B

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NO.15 Company Z has two sites. Both sites are inventory organizations. One is in Colorado, the other is in
New Jersey. Inventory is expected to travel between the two, in both directions.
The following requirements are identical for the two organizations:
a) Ownership transfer occurs upon ship confirm.
b) There is a two-step receiving process.
c) Only approved orders would be performeD.
Which setups in Shipping Networks meet these criteria?
A. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required = checked
B. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Direct, Internal Order Required =
unchecked
C. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Receipt, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =
checked
D. Transit Type = Direct, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Standard, Internal Order Required =
checked
E. Transit Type = Intransit, FOB = Shipment, Receipt Routing = Inspection, Internal Order Required =
checked
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.16 Identify the four statements related to the MOAC functionality. (Choose four.)
A. When querying any transaction, one must specify the operating unit.
B. The Operating Unit field is a display-only field for all the transaction forms.
C. While entering a transaction, the Operating Unit needs to be selected in case the user wants an
Operating Unit other than the default.
D. While querying for a transaction, entering the Operating Unit helps the application to query lesser
number of transactions and results in better performancE.
E. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage
Sales Orders and Returns across multiple operating units.
F. A new Operating Unit field has been added to all the forms that allow the user to view and manage
Sales Agreements and Quotes across multiple operating units.
Answer: CDEF

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226 examen   certification 1Z0-226

NO.17 The Check ATP option is enabled for an item in the Finished Goods subinventory.
Which action will occur?
A. Check the quantity requested against forecast.
B. Generate a requisition for the requested quantity.
C. Permit order booking based on a successful test.
D. Check the quantity requested against safety stock.
E. Check the quantity requested against Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-226 examen   1Z0-226

NO.18 The client wants to implement reorder point planning for some items in the organization. They
currently use min-max planninG. What is the minimum amount of information that needs to be changed
on the items the client wants to plan?
A. Safety Stock Quantity and Forecast
B. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost
C. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, and Order Cost
D. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Maximum Order Quantity
E. Safety Stock Quantity, Inventory Planning Method set to Reorder Point, Forecast Quantity, Carrying
Cost, Order Cost, and Minimum Order Quantity
Answer: C

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NO.19 For which type of move order is approval required?
A. Planning Move Order
B. Shipping Move Order
C. Production Move Order
D. Requisition Move Order
E. Replenishment Move Order
Answer: D

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NO.20 During the requirements-gathering stage, your client states that it wants items purchased from a
supplier to be inspecteD. The client wants to know at what point the inventory is available to reservE.
When can reservations occur?
A. upon PO Line receipt
B. when the PO is approved
C. after the Inspection step is performed
D. after the Receipt Line Deliver transaction
E. reservations are not possible on inspection items
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.21 Select two correct statements regarding the workflow holds/activities/Exception Management.
(Choose two.)
A. The Retry concurrent program can be run only at Execution modE.
B. Retry workflow activities are possible only at individual error levels.
C. Retry workflow activities are possible in batch mode via concurrent program.
D. Retry workflow activities cannot be launched from the Process Messages window.
E. When a ship line activity errors out after the line has progressed and the delivery detail is closed, the
line status displays as Notify instead of Retry.
Answer: CE

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NO.22 Identify four functions that a user can perform using the Material WorkbencH. (Choose four)
A. Create move orders.
B. Create and save queries.
C. Change material statuses.
D. Perform miscellaneous issues.
E. Perform miscellaneous receipts.
F. Perform pick confirm transactions.
G. Perform ship confirm transactions.
H. View material in receiving, on-hand quantities, and intransit material.
Answer: ABCH

Oracle   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.23 Your client requires Org A to supply Org B with inventory on a need basis. The Internal Order flag is
checkeD. An internal requisition has been created and approveD.
What type of receipt would Org B have to perform to receive the goods?
A. RMA receipt
B. Inter-Org Transfer
C. Account Alias receipt
D. Purchase Order receipt
E. Receipt by Shipment Number
Answer: E

Oracle examen   1Z0-226   1Z0-226   1Z0-226

NO.24 Your customer decided to use min-max planning for some items in specific subinventories. You
caution him not to include too many customer orders when he runs the report.
What option do you suggest that he include?
A. Supply Cutoff Date
B. Demand Cutoff Date
C. Supply and Demand Cutoff Dates
D. Material Requirement Planning (MRP)
E. Advanced Supply Chain Planning (ASCP)
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226

NO.25 ACME is implementing Inventory in a Process Manufacturing environment. The default profile for the
min-max planning report is deployeD.
What will be the result?
A. Requisitions will be pre-approveD.
B. Users must approve requisitions for items that have a limited shelf lifE.
C. Users must approve requisitions for items with a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
D. Users must approve requisitions that are inside the items Past Due Supply time fencE.
E. Users must approve requisitions when the quantity exceeds the item's Economic Order Quantity
(EOQ).
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the significance of the Shrinkage Rate item attribute?
A. The expected reduction in demand within the planning fence
B. The average loss of material during manufacturing or storage
C. The expected decrease in the rate of production of units during manufacturing
D. The expected percentage (%) loss of quality of an item during the manufacturing process or storage
Answer: B

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NO.27 What is true about (alpha) in the Exponential Smoothing Forecast (ESF) method?
A. (alpha) equals the old forecast.
B. (alpha) is always greater than onE.
C. (alpha) is calculated by Oracle Inventory.
D. (alpha) is multiplied by the forecast error to determine the adjustment.
E. (alpha) equals the old forecast plus a portion of the forecast error from the previous perioD.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-226   certification 1Z0-226

NO.28 Which data is provided by Oracle Purchasing to Oracle Inventory?
A. ATP supply, planning supply, and requisition information
B. items, requisition, and interorganization shipment information
C. receipts/deliveries and interorganization shipment information
D. receipts/deliveries, ATP supply, and planning supply information
E. receipts/deliveries, units of measure, ATP supply, and planning supply information
Answer: D

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NO.29 The client has decided that Quality and Discrete Manufacturing will be implemented at a future stage,
so new supply from current manufacturing will be added to current inventory on hand by the Open
Transactions InterfacE.
The immediate requirement is to go-live with Inventory and Order Management.
Which three seeded transaction types can be omitted for material status control? (Choose threE. )
A. average cost update
B. all internal transactions
C. backflush subinventory transfer
D. miscellaneous issues and receipts
E. all transaction types related to Work in Process
F. all transaction types related to Project Manufacturing
Answer: CEF

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NO.30 ACME is implementing Inventory in a make-to-order manufacturing environment, where there is
on-hand inventory for 200 different motors.
For these purchasable items, given the proper profile setup, Min-max can automatically create _____.
A. an expense account
B. an encumbrance account
C. an invoice price variance account
D. an inventory Accounts Payable accrual account
E. records in the Purchase Order Requisition interface table
Answer: E

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Certification Oracle de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen 1Z0-023, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-023
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Architecture and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 151 Q&As

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NO.1 You have two order lines on a sales order. Line 1 is standard line with shipment and
invoicing. Line 2 is invoice-only line and does not involve any shipment. Which solution
would you use to ensure that line 2 is interfaced with Oracle Receivables at the same time
as line 1?
A. Put both lines in Ship sets
B. Put both lines in ship sets and use defaulting rule to default scheduled ship date from
line 1 to line 2
C. Pub both lines in arrival sets
D. Put both lines in fulfillment sets
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.2 You have defined a Profile class of B to represent customers with $100,000 credit limit.
If you decide to increase the credit limit of all future Class B customers to $150,000,
which method would you choose when you save the updated credit profile?
A. Update all non-customized profiles
B. None of above
C. Do not update exiting profiles
D. Update all profiles
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.3 At which stage in the shipping Execution process is a high-level reservation transferred
to an allocated reservation?
A. Sales Order Booking
B. Pick Confirm
C. Ship Confirm
D. Pick Release
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen

NO.4 Which four seeded freight charges are included in Oracle Pricing? (Choose Four.)
A. Duty
B. Services
C. Export
D. Miscellaneous
E. Insurance
Answer: A,C,D,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.5 Certkiller .com. runs on the PTO fulfillment model. All the rule-based business rules for
configuration the model are incorporated using OracleConfigurator, which makes it
intuitive for sales representatives to configure the PTO model.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. After selecting all the options, PTO Model needs to be processed to get the configured
part
B. Routing needs to be defined for the PTO model
C. Ship confirm the option items, not the PTO model and option class
D. Process the configured item to generate the work order
E. Based on the setup, either ship model complete or individual options
Answer: C,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.6 Which three statements are true about freight carriers? (Choose three.)
A. Inter-organization transfer uses an associated General Ledger account to specify the
freight cost
B. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customer, supplier and internal
organizations
C. Freight carriers are specific to the inventory organization
D. You can't associate the General Ledger account with each freight to collect associated
costs
E. Freight carriers are used only for customer shipments
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen

NO.7 A user has been tasked with ensuring that Credit Checking is done at the time of Sales
Order Booking for ABC Corp. Though she believes she set up everything correctly, no
credit checks seem to be occurring.
Which three elements should be check? (Choose three.)
A. Is Credit Checking enabled for the payment terms applied to ABC Corp?
B. Is the Credit check box selected in the standard customer setup for ABC Corp?
C. Is credit check selected at booking on the Order Transaction Type setup used for ABC
Corps orders?
D. Is the credit check hold check box selected in the profile class accounts window for
ABC Corp?
E. Is credit check selected at shipping on the order transaction type setup used for ABC
Corps orders?
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which two statements are true for setting up freight carriers? (Choose two.)
A. Service levels are required for all freight carriers
B. Freight carriers are organization specific, so they need to be defined for each
organization
C. Freight carriers do not need to be assigned to organizations. After they are defined,
they are available for shipping transactions
D. Freight carriers are defined once and then enabled in the organizations that would use
those particular carriers
E. Service levels are optional additional information for carriers
Answer: A,D

Oracle   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023 examen   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.9 After a sales order is booked, the sales order lines must complete all workflow activities
leading up to the shipping activity. Which two are typical workflow activities as part of
this process? (Choose two.)
A. Create Supply
B. Scheduled Line
C. Create Deliveries
D. Pick Release
E. Create Trip
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023 examen

NO.10 Mary wants to perform the Pick Release process for delivery lines that have been booked.
Which three options are valid approaches for her to use? (Choose three.)
A. Run the Auto Allocate process
B. Execute online from the release sales order window
C. Run a concurrent program from the release sales order window
D. Use the standard Report submission process
E. Run the Pick Slip Grouping process
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 In order to group sales order lines onto a delivery when attempting to ship an order, some
criteria must be the same.
Which attribute must be the same as controlled by the shipping parameters?
A. Order
B. Customer Account Number
C. Warehouse Location
D. Ship From Location
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which two statements are true about one-step shipping? (Choose two.)
A. One-step shipping must be used with quick ship shipping transactions
B. One-step shipping is the process of ensuring lot controls are shipped appropriately
C. Ship confirm rules must be set up in order to use one-step shipping
D. One-step shipping is the process of picking, optionally packing and ship confirming
delivery lines in one step
Answer: C,D

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NO.13 You are a consultant to a client. The client has a policy according to the original
scheduled ship date.
The client suspects that people are moving the scheduled ship date on orders so that they
do no appear as a late shipments
The top management wants to know about any order that has its scheduled ship date
changed to a future date. It does not want to stop or slow down the shipping process, but
wants to be able to track orders that have had the date changed.
You decide to manage these changes using shipping exceptions. How would you change
the defaulted values for the exception named "WSH_CHANGE_SCHED_DATE"
shipping exception?
A. Set Exception behavior as defaulted and remove the enabled flag
B. Set Exception behavior to warning
C. Set Exception behavior to Error
D. Set Exception behavior to information only
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about freight and special charges modifiers? (Choose
two.)
A. All freight and special charges are passed to receivables for invoicing
B. Using freight and special charges modifiers, you can apply different freight
C. Freight and special charges can't be manually overridden
D. Only shipping execution can capture freight costs and apply charges
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.15 What is true about the Ship From Stock fulfillment model?
A. Every order line should create a WIP job of equivalent quantity
B. Every order must be reserved
C. Stock is not shipped from the factory to the warehouse until receipt of the order
D. Every order can be pick released almost immediately after booking
Answer: D

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NO.16 Certkiller .com is a retail company and all its customer orders that are shipped have a
pre-defined freight charge for each line item on the order. The company wants to apply
the freight charge to the sales order automatically to increase the order amount.
What should ABC do?
A. They can't do this; freight charges can be applied only during the ship confirm process
B. A Freight and Special Charges modifier can't be defined to apply the freight charge at
the time of the sales order
C. Automatic Freight and Special Charges modifier to apply at each sales order line
D. Define the surcharge list type of modifier to automatically apply the freight charge at
the time of the sales order
E. Manual Freight and Special Charges modifiers to apply at each sales order line
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-023   1Z0-023   1Z0-023

NO.17 James wants to add a new recipient to the Approvals list for seeded Negotiation Flow
with Approvals.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The seeded workflow list of approvers can't be modified
B. He should open the seeded workflow and add the new name there
C. He can't modify the seeded list, so he should create a new workflow
D. He should select Setup>Transaction Types, query the appropriate Transaction Type
and the click the Approvals button. Finally, he should add the recipient to the list of
Approves for the appropriate list name
E. He should select Setup> Transaction Types> Approvals and add the recipient to the
list of Approves for the appropriate list name
Answer: D,E

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NO.18 Which three statements are true regarding Drop Ship Orders? (Choose three.)
A. The PO is created from an Approved Requisition, which is then sent to the supplier
B. The suppliers ships to the seller
C. Requisition Import Program creates the requisitions
D. The purchase Release concurrent program or workflow in order management creates
rows in the Requisition import tables
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which definition correctly describes the functionality of pricing formulas?
A. A mathematical computation that the order uses to determine which price list to apply
to a given line based on the criteria set in the pricing parameters form
B. A mathematical computation that the pricing engine uses as an alternative to entering
prices in a price list or to calculate a price adjustment
C. A formula that the price list uses to apply modifiers and qualifiers when the correct
criterion is met
D. A formula that evaluates the criteria and the order in which to apply qualifiers
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which four statements describe the role of Back-to-Back Orders? (Choose Four.)
A. Links sales orders and purchase orders
B. Flow of reservation supply from requisition to PO to inventory
C. Auto Creates requisitions
D. Supplier ships directly to customer
E. Pegs supply to demand
Answer: A,B,C,E

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2013年10月31日星期四

Certification Esri de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen EADA10, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: EADA10
Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.3 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.7 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.8 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.11 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
longer available. Which menu must the user choose to add the Table of Contents to his map document?
A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

Esri examen   EADA10   EADA10   EADA10

NO.13 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.14 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.15 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   S90-01A examen   S90-01A

NO.5 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   S90-01A   S90-01A

NO.9 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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