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Code d'Examen: 212-77
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Linux Security )
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is not a Linux DHCP client?
A. dhcpcd
B. pump
C. dhcpd
D. dhclient
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is true of Linux passwords?
A. They are changed with the password utility.
B. They must be changed once a month.
C. They may consist only of lowercase letters and numbers.
D. They may be changed by the user who owns an account or by root.
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   212-77   212-77 examen   212-77

NO.3 Which of the following are ways to disable dynamic routing?
A. The linuxconf Gated Daemon screen
B. The linuxconf Routed Daemon screen
C. echo "0" > /proc/sys/net/ipv4/dynamic_routing
D. Editing /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are risks of SUID and SGID programs? (Choose two)
A. Bugs in the programs may cause more damage than they would in ordinary programs.
B. The program files are large and thus may cause a disk to run out of space.
C. Because the programs require password entry, running them over an insecure network
link runs the risk of password interception.
D. Users may be able to abuse a program's features, thus doing more damage than would
otherwise be possible.
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 Under the bash shell which is the most appropriate place to set environment
variables that apply to all users?
A. /etc/skel
B. rc.sysinit
C. /etc/profile
D. /etc/bashrc
E. rc.local
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following statements applies to the IP address 192.168.0.1?
A. It is reserved.
B. It cannot be assigned to a host that accesses the Internet.
C. It is designated for multicast transmission.
D. It can be freely assigned to a host on a private network
Answer: A

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NO.7 How should you engage users in helping to secure your computer's passwords?
A. Educate them about the importance of security, the means of choosing good
passwords, and the ways crackers can obtain passwords.
B. Instruct your users to e-mail copies of their passwords to themselves on other systems
so that they're readily available in case of an emergency.
C. Enforce password change rules but don't tell users how crackers obtain passwords
since you could be educating a future cracker.
D. Give some of your users copies of the encrypted database file as backup in case a
cracker breaks in and corrupts the original.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following measures is the most effective way to prevent attacks
through various network services?
A. Disable a service in the appropriate /etc/xinetd.d configuration file.
B. Use a firewall to drop all requests to unneeded services.
C. Block service requests with the appropriate commands in /etc/hosts.deny.
D. Uninstall unneeded network services.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Assume that you have just logged on as a regular user. Which of the following
commands allows you to edit the file with user passwords associated with the
Shadow Password Suite?
A. vi /etc/shadow
B. sudo -c "vi /etc/shadow"
C. su -c "vi /etc/shadow"
D. visu vi /etc/passwd
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are told by a co-worker that information pertaining to the syslog command can
be found in man page 3. How would you view this information?
A. man syslog 3
B. man 3 syslog
C. man syslog -3
D. man -3 syslog
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: EC1-349
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator Exam)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following email headers specifies an address for mailer-generated errors, like "no
such user" bounce messages, to go to (instead of the sender's address)?
A. Errors-To header
B. Content-Transfer-Encoding header
C. Mime-Version header
D. Content-Type header
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is not a part of the technical specification of the laboratory-based
imaging
system?
A. High performance workstation PC
B. Remote preview and imaging pod
C. Anti-repudiation techniques
D. very low image capture rate
Answer: D

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NO.3 Email archiving is a systematic approach to save and protect the data contained in emails so
that
it can tie easily accessed at a later date.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X”
represents the _________.
A. Drive name
B. Sequential number
C. Original file name's extension
D. Original file name
Answer: A

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NO.5 When dealing with the powered-off computers at the crime scene, if the computer is switched
off,
turn it on
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 During the seizure of digital evidence, the suspect can be allowed touch the computer
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.7 Smith, as a part his forensic investigation assignment, has seized a mobile device. He was
asked
to recover the Subscriber Identity Module (SIM card) data the mobile device. Smith found that the
SIM was protected by a Personal identification Number (PIN) code but he was also aware that
people generally leave the PIN numbers to the defaults or use easily guessable numbers such as
1234. He unsuccessfully tried three PIN numbers that blocked the SIM card. What Jason can do in
this scenario to reset the PIN and access SIM data?
A. He should contact the device manufacturer for a Temporary Unlock Code (TUK) to gain access
to the SIM
B. He cannot access the SIM data in this scenario as the network operators or device
manufacturers have no idea about a device PIN
C. He should again attempt PIN guesses after a time of 24 hours
D. He should ask the network operator for Personal Unlock Number (PUK) to gain access to the
SIM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Data acquisition system is a combination of tools or processes used to gather, analyze and
record
Information about some phenomenon. Different data acquisition system are used depends on the
location, speed, cost. etc. Serial communication data acquisition system is used when the actual
location of the data is at some distance from the computer. Which of the following communication
standard is used in serial communication data acquisition system?
A. RS422
B. RS423
C. RS232
D. RS231
Answer: C

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NO.9 WPA2 provides enterprise and Wi-Fi users with stronger data protection and network access
control which of the following encryption algorithm is used DVWPA2?
A. RC4-CCMP
B. RC4-TKIP
C. AES-CCMP
D. AES-TKIP
Answer: C

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NO.10 Computer forensics report provides detailed information on complete computer forensics
investigation process. It should explain how the incident occurred, provide technical details of the
incident and should be clear to understand. Which of the following attributes of a forensics report
can render it inadmissible in a court of law?
A. It includes metadata about the incident
B. It includes relevant extracts referred to In the report that support analysis or conclusions
C. It is based on logical assumptions about the incident timeline
D. It maintains a single document style throughout the text
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: PW0-250
Nom d'Examen: CWNP (Certified Wireless Design Professional (CWDP) )
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 When deploying long-distance 802.11 bridge links (10 miles / 16 km), what parameter may be critical for
improving data flow by reducing retries caused by the long distances.?
A. The sequence control field value
B. The acknowledgement timeout threshold
C. The minimum transmit data rate value
D. The CTS-to-self threshold
E. The Beacon interval
F. The PHY parameter set field
Answer: B

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NO.2 One of your customers plans on providing wireless coverage to a warehouse facility. After performing an
initial walkthrough, you collect the following information:
-The central part of the warehouse is between 400 and 600 feet (122 to 183 meters) from the warehouse
switches mounted on the walls.
-The warehouse map was provided by the customer and is displayed in the exhibit.
-The warehouse storage is composed of metallic racks with varying inventory levels and contents, from
electronics and plastic toys to food pallets and juice bottles.
-Workers need basic data coverage from their working location, and are not highly mobile. They usually
work from one single aisle, and their laptop is on a cart with wheels.
What would be your recommendation to provide coverage to the central area (indicated by a blue circle)
of the warehouse?
A. Equip workers laptops with a directional antenna and install APs less than 328 feet (100m) away from
the switch.
B. In this case, extend the cable length just beyond 328 feet (100 m) and position APs as close as
possible to the central area of the warehouse.
C. Position APs along the walls, and equip the APs with Yagi antennas to cover the central area.
D. Install APs for client access in the central area and use a mesh backhaul link to connect to the DS.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a manufacturing facility with highly reflective materials, you are planning an upgrade to your existing
802.11b solution. You have chosen a dual-band 802.11n infrastructure product for this purpose. Your
client applications include:
Handheld scanners
for inventory management
Toughbooks (laptops)
mounted on forklifts for inventory and workflow management
VoWiFi phones
used by select employees throughout the facility You are evaluating all of the 802.11n
enhancements and determining which features to enable for your environment and applications.
In this scenario, what 802.11n enhancements should NOT be enabled on the 2.4 GHz radio of the new
APs? (Choose 2)
A. 40 MHz channels
B. Short guard intervals
C. Block Acknowledgments
D. Frame aggregation
E. MRC
F. STBC
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 When a WLAN controller transmits an Ethernet frame that has an IEEE 802.11 frame as its payload to a
lightweight AP, what type of QoS marks can be applied to the Ethernet frame and/or its payload? (Choose
3)
A. IEEE 802.1Q PCP marks in the Ethernet frame header
B. User Priority marks in the IEEE 802.11 frame header
C. Throughput subscription marks in the Ethernet frame header
D. MPLS tags from the Label Edge Router (LER)
E. DSCP marks to the ToS bits in the encapsulating IP packet header
F. RSVP tag if RTP is the payload of the IEEE 802.11 frame
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 According to WLAN security design best practices, what is true of the EAP properties shown in the
exhibit?
A. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should be checked if you purchased a third-party SSL
certificate for the AS, but left unchecked if you have a self-signed certificate for the AS.
B. The Validate server certificate
checkbox should always be checked to prevent MITM attacks from
rogue authentication servers.
C. The Trusted Root Certification Authorities
list is provided to identify the certificate that the client
should send to the AS for client authentication.
D. The Do not prompt user to authorize new servers or trusted certification authorities
box should be
checked only for administrative users.
E. The Enable Identity Privacy
checkbox and anonymous name field are only useful for networks
supporting EAP-LEAP.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Your customer location is equipped with DAS, originally deployed to relay a GSM signal indoors and
provide 802.11 data coverage to static stations. What type of wireless application would be least likely to
be supported by this RF distribution model?
A. On-demand video streaming over wireless
B. Data connection with frequent roaming
C. Location-based services for wireless assets or RFID tags
D. VoWLAN if the codec is G.729.
E. FTP over implicit TLS/SSL
Answer: C

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NO.7 After surveying for the ideal mounting locations for APs, you have been asked to compromise RF
propagation optimization due to aesthetic concerns raised by your customer. In the end, you ve decided to
mount the APs in the ideal locations and paint the APs so they go unnoticed in the environment.
What is a valid recommendation or consideration when painting APs? (Choose 2)
A. Always use paints with metallic dye in them to prevent potential RF propagation impact.
B. Do not paint the notification LEDs on the AP, but configure them to be dim or turned off altogether until
troubleshooting is required.
C. Painting APs may void the product manufacturer s warranty.
D. Most AP models for indoor environments come in a variety of form factors and colors. Painting is never
recommended.
E. Painting APs always introduces a fire and gas emissions hazard and should be avoided for all indoor
APs.
Answer: B,C

CWNP   PW0-250 examen   PW0-250

NO.8 In a centralized WLAN architecture, what new problem may arise when you change the data forwarding
model from centralized to distributed? (Choose 2)
A. APs that were designed for a centralized forwarding model may not support all features in distributed
forwarding mode.
B. The Ethernet switch ports to which APs are connected may need to be reconfigured to support VLAN
tagging and QoS at the network edge.
C. All RRM controls will also need to be distributed to a master AP that acts as a channel and transmit
power arbiter for other APs in the ESS.
D. Centralized control functions, such as key management and distribution, RRM, and load balancing will
no longer be supported.
E. APs will not have the processing capabilities to support AES-CCMP, so TKIP will be the recommended
encryption method.
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 Which definition correctly describes the local MAC
variation of the centralized WLAN architecture?
A. All MAC functions are performed by the AP. A minimal subset of network control is offloaded to the
WLAN controller along with management and monitoring functions.
B. PHY functions are performed directly by the AP. MAC functions are divided almost equally between the
WLAN controller and the AP, according to the time sensitivity of the feature or service.
C. The AP provides the RF termination point for the WLAN, but performs very few of the WLAN functions
or services. The WLAN controller performs all MAC functions and the AP is very simple and lightweight.
D. All RF-, data-, and control-related WLAN functions are performed by the AP. APs coordinate network
services with one another and are managed by a WNMS, so no WLAN controller is used in this
architecture.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Given: Use Exhibit 1, 2, and 3 to answer the question.
The azimuth and elevation charts for which type of antenna are shown in Exhibit 1?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4
E. Figure 5
F. Figure 6
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: RF0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.2 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

CompTIA   RF0-001   RF0-001

NO.3 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.5 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.10 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.11 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.15 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.16 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.17 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.18 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.2 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.3 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.4 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.5 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.6 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.8 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.9 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.10 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.12 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.13 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.14 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.15 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.16 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.17 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.19 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JK0-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 904 Q&As

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NO.1 An inkjet printer has poor color registration.
Which of the following should be done FIRST to resolve the problem?
A. Clean the printheads.
B. Replace the toner.
C. Calibrate the device.
D. Replace the drum.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user reports that email is working but they are unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is
the NEXT step in solving the issue?
A. Check the DNS server.
B. Check the DHCP server.
C. Verify the correct IP address.
D. Ensure the website is not blocked.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following groups should staff accounts be placed in, if the staff is required to perform most
but not all maintenance tasks on a Windows PC?
A. Power Users
B. User
C. Administrator
D. Guest
Answer: A

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NO.4 A technician's system is displaying the error message 'Missing operating system'. The system will not
boot up.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? (Select TWO).
A. The MBR is not reading the volume boot record (VBR).
B. The CMOS battery is not functional.
C. A failed integrated controller on the hard disk drive.
D. The volume boot record (VBR) is missing 55Ah.
E. Drive parameters in the BIOS are not set to auto.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 A user is having trouble printing. The technician determines that the print queue has stalled and the
print spooler service has stopped.
Which of the following can be used to restart the print spooler?
A. Start>All Programs>Printing>Restart Spooler.
B. Restart the computer.
C. Start>Control Panel>Printers and Faxes>right click the name of the affected printer>Restart Spooler.
D. Start>Control Panel>Administrative Tools>Services>Select Print Spooler>Start.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A technician is setting up a secure SOHO network.
Which of the following items needs to be setup on the network?
A. SSID, encryption type, MAC security, encryption key
B. SSID, wireless access point, encryption type, encryption key
C. SSID, encryption type, encryption key, a channel
D. SSID, WEP 128, MAC security, a channel
Answer: C

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NO.7 During POST a beep can be heard, and the computer does not boot.
Which of the following BEST describes the problem?
A. RAM failure
B. Power supply failure
C. Floppy drive failure
D. Hard drive failure
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer cannot print certain PDF documents on their laser printer. The print job in is a multi-page
large PDF with multiple colors.
Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Change the driver from PCL to Post Script.
B. Update the printer firmware to handle larger jobs.
C. Add additional memory to the laser printer.
D. Add additional memory to the computer.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-702   JK0-702

NO.9 An assistant in a company unexpectedly falls ill the week before a major company merger. The
assistant was responsible for maintaining all of the files concerning the merger and used NTFS
permissions on the folders to keep them protected. No one has the passwords but the data must be
accessed immediately.
Which of the following would be the BEST method for the technician to access this data?
A. Log in as administrator and copy the files to the assistant's manager profile on the computer.
B. Log in as administrator and assign ownership of the files to the assistant's manager.
C. Log in as administrator and assign share rights of the files to the assistant's manager.
D. Log in as administrator and rename the assistant's profile to the manager's profile on the computer.
Answer: B

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NO.10 When using a cable select configuration for multiple ATA hard drives, which of the following pin
numbers is used to communicate the drive that is selected as master?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 28
D. 39
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is the effective bandwidth of a 100BASE-TX network card when full-duplex is
enabled?
A. 50MBps
B. 100MBps
C. 200MBps
D. 1000MBps
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following groups should a user be added to for the ability to restore files, without granting
any ownership privileges?
A. Remote Desktop Users
B. Power Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
Answer: D

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NO.13 A customer reports that their sound is not working. They state that the speakers worked previously.
Which of the following should the technician check? (Select THREE).
A. Speakers are in regulatory compliance.
B. Speakers are on and the mute is off.
C. Ensure the speakers are on the Windows HCL.
D. Verify the system has enough hard drive space.
E. The audio driver is installed correctly.
F. Speakers are plugged into the correct jack.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.14 A customer wants to change the file system on a Windows 2000 PC from FAT32 to NTFS without
destroying data.
Which of the following is correct?
A. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /M
B. From the command line run FORMAT C: /FS:NTFS
C. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /-Y
D. From the command line run CONVERT C: /FS:NTFS
Answer: D

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NO.15 A technician is attempting to determine whether a CAT5 patch cord is a straight-through or a
crossover.
Which of the following is the BEST to use to determine the cord type?
A. Cable tester
B. Loopback cable
C. Multimeter
D. Extension magnet
Answer: A

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NO.16 A technician needs to upgrade memory on a laptop with one available memory slot. The type and
amount of memory has been confirmed to be correct. Once the new memory is added, the BIOS reports
the original memory size.
Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform?
A. Replace all of the laptop's memory.
B. Reseat the laptop memory.
C. Perform a Windows Update.
D. Replace the motherboard.
Answer: B

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NO.17 A technician is troubleshooting software that was supposed to startup when the PC powered on. The
software failed to start.
Which of the following should the technician use to investigate the issue?
A. Sessions
B. System
C. Security
D. Application
Answer: D

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NO.18 A technician is replacing a wireless router on an existing small office home office (SOHO) network. The
SSID, WPA and DHCP information has been correctly added.
Which of the following must also be addressed?
A. The administrative password needs to be changed.
B. The TKIP option needs to be enabled.
C. The WEP key needs to be changed.
D. Wireless access points need to be added.
Answer: A

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NO.19 A user reports that their computer is running considerably slower after visiting a website. The user's PC
has a current antivirus package that is running correctly.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST in order to diagnose the problem?
A. Clear the web browser history.
B. Run an anti-spyware tool.
C. Defrag the user's hard drive.
D. Run the CHKDSK utility.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following protocols would a technician use to run commands on a remote computer.?
A. NETBIOS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TELNET
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JK0-017
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 402 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.3 Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed
variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.4 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.6 Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?
A. A high level requirements document used to create the WBS.
B. An alphabetical listing of WBS components detailing their associated project schedule dependencies
C. An organizational reference defining how WBS levels must be decomposed.
D. A supporting document that provides more detail for the WBS components.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017 examen

NO.9 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   certification JK0-017

NO.11 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: C

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NO.12 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together. This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.13 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AB

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NO.15 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.17 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.18 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.20 A project has been cancelled during the execution phase. Which of the following steps should be
taken?
A. Continue to work the project.
B. Finish the project charter and project plan.
C. Complete lessons learned document.
D. Develop the project transition plan.
Answer: C

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NO.21 Given the following information:
Pessimistic estimate is 30 days
Most Likely estimate is 15 days
Optimistic estimate Is 10 days
Which of the following is the expected duration for this scheduled activity?
A. 11 days
B. 17 days
C. 25 days
D. 29 days
Answer: C

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NO.22 A project manager has been informed that a project deliverable must be completed by September 1st.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Project assumption
B. Project constraint
C. Project risk
D. Acceptance criteria
Answer: B

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NO.23 The project cost performance index is 1.2 and the project manager has spent $71,248 dollars to date.
The project is currently 50 percent complete. Which of the following is the earned value (EV)?
A. $35,624.00
B. $59,373.33
C. $71,243.00
D. $35,497.60
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.24 The EV of a particular project is $6 million. The CV is -$340,000. Which of the following can be
determined from this information?
A. The project costs are currently under-budget.
B. The AC is less than the EV.
C. The EV Is higher than the AC.
D. The project costs are currently over-budget.
Answer: D

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NO.25 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: AE

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NO.26 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: BD

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NO.28 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.29 There are three teams assigned to the same project. Two of the project teams are ahead of schedule;
however, the product does not meet the needed quality standards. The third project team is behind
schedule, but their product meets the quality standards. Which of the following should be the NEXT step
for the project manager?
A. Inform the stakeholders that the project is behind schedule.
B. Meet with the teams to clarify the schedule and the quality standards expected.
C. Crash the schedule to meet the project timeline.
D. Fast track the schedule to complete the project on time without impacting the quality of the product.
Answer: D

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NO.30 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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