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Code d'Examen: BH0-005
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Certificate in Software Asset Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 There is a need to reduce the number of SAM reports produced. Which of the following is the LEAST
necessary?
A.The number of software related calls to the Service Desk
B.The cost of a site licence for existing software
C.The number of deployed licenses for each item of software
D.The number of new software licenses required.
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which of these elements is part of the preparation stage of implementation?
A.Identifying and assessing software risks and creating a risk register
B.Occasionally completing surprise or ad hoc reviews and audits
C.Highlighting any problems and raising the profile of continued non-conformance
D.Continuously emphasise the importance of the SAM process to all ICT and business personnel.
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which of the following BEST describes the objective of the Core Asset Management processes?
A.To maintain information about software assets throughout their lifecycle and to manage the physical
assets related to software
B.To manage all software assets and their licenses.
C.To manage all software and hardware assets
D.To identify and maintain information about all software assets throughout their lifecycle.
Answer:A

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NO.4 For reporting purposes which of the following would you NOT expect to be used to derive SAM reports?
A.DSL
B.CMDB
C.OLA.
D.KEDB.
Answer:C

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NO.5 What method of metering would be BEST suited to a concurrent license based application?
A.Active
B.Selective
C.Non-selective.
D.Passive.
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-ITILV3F
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITIL Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
Questions et réponses: 162 Q&As

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NO.1 Control of user desk-top PCs

NO.2 Which Function would provide staff to monitor events in an Operations Bridge?
A. Technical Management
B. IT Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Applications Management
Answer: B

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NO.3 Dashboard type technology
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

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2. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A. Application Management
B. Service Desk
C. Incident Management
D. Technical Management
Answer: C

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3. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of Change
Management?
A. A set of questions that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B. A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C. A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D. A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

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4. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are?
A. Carried out by Service Operations
B. Carried out by lots of people
C. Critical to the success of the business mission
D. Simple and well understood
Answer: D

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NO.4 Create and use diagnostic scripts

NO.5 Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged

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Code d'Examen: BH0-013
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis )
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following investigation techniques involves following a user for one or two days in order to
find out what a particular job entails?
A. Scenario analysis.
B. Protocol analysis.
C. Shadowing.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following terms may be used to describe the attitude of a stakeholder who is NOT in favour
of the project but is probably not actively opposed to it?
A. Opponent.
B. Neutral.
C. Critic.
D. Blocker.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Business rules define how actions are to be performed. Under which of the following headings are
business rules considered?
A. Explicit or implicit management statements,
B. Statutory and internal policies.
C. Constraints and operational guidance.
D. Negotiable and non-negotiable limitations.
Answer: C

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NO.4 When should benefits realisation be carried out?
A. Immediately at the end of the project.
B. At the beginning of the project.
C. At the end of the finalised feasibility study.
D. Months or years after the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.5 On a class diagram, what do the multiplicities represent?
A. The number of attributes held within each class.
B. The minimum and maximum number of operations in each class.
C. The minimum and maximum number of objects in each class.
D. The business rules for an association between two classes.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What does the O' stand for in the CATVVOE analysis?
A. The objectives of the business system under review.
B. The opportunities for change in the business system under review.
C. The organisation of the business system under review.
D. The owner of the business system under review.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which of the following business analysis areas does the traditional systems analyst role primarily
operate?
A. Quantifying costs and benefits.
B. Defining the needs of the business.
C. Implementing business changes.
D. Specifying IT system requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A stakeholder has been classified as 'some' on both the power/influence and interest axes of a
power/interest grid. Which of the following would be an appropriate way of managing this stakeholder?
A. Keep on side.
B. Keep watching.
C. Keep informed.
D. Keep satisfied.
Answer: A

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NO.9 It has been suggested that five clerical posts can be abolished when a new computer system is
implemented. Under which category of costs or benefits will this be recorded?
A. Tangible costs.
B. Tangible benefits.
C. Intangible costs.
D. Intangible benefits.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which stage in the waterfall model is considered as several separate stages in the V model?
A. Development.
B. Analysis.
C. Testing.
D. Design.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Different reactions may be observed when a change to working methods is proposed. These reactions
include:
a. Enthusiasm for the change.
b. Fear of the change.
c. Reduced performance on the job.
d. Reluctant acceptance of the change.
Which of the following represents the typical sequence of these four reactions?
A. b, d, c and a.
B. a, b, c and d.
C. b, c, d and a.
D. a, b, d and c.
Answer: C

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NO.12 The required competencies of a business analyst are classified into three categories. Which of the
following is one of these three categories.?
A. Management Qualities.
B. Business Knowledge.
C. IT Skills
D. Project Skills.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statement is TRUE about the process view of an organisation?
A. It focuses on the customer of the organisation.
B. It focuses solely on the internal view of the organisation.
C. It focuses on the functions of an organisation.
D. It focuses on the organisational structure.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given the cashflows below, which of the following is correct?
A. The project pays back in year 4 of the project.
B. The project does not pay back within the four year period.
C. The project pays back in year 2 of the project.
D. The project pays back in year 3 of the project.
Answer: B

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NO.15 A batch program runs every night to raise invoices. The next day these invoices are posted out to
customers by a clerk. Customers pay the invoices with cheques. The cheques are then banked by a clerk.
In this scenario, which of the following represents a business event?
A. System prints invoices.
B. Clerk sends invoices to customers.
C. Customer's cheque is received.
D. Clerk banks the cheque.
Answer: C

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NO.16 As part of an investigation a Business Analyst has devised a form for users of an existing system to use
to keep track of the tasks they undertake during their working day. Which of the following describes this
investigation technique?
A. Special purpose records,
B. Scenario analysis.
C. Questionnaires.
D. Activity sampling.
Answer: A

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NO.17 During which stage of the Business Analysis Process Model would a gap analysis be carried out?
A. Define requirements.
B. Analyse needs.
C. Evaluate the options.
D. Investigate situation.
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the first stage of the waterfall systems development lifecycle?
A. Plan.
B. Analysis.
C. Feasibility Study.
D. Strategic Vision.
Answer: C

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NO.19 In a particular organisation it is common practice to call all managers by their first name. It is part of the
culture of the organisation. Newcomers are quickly corrected if they do not follow this informal approach.
What would knowing about this convention be classified as in Requirements Engineering?
A. Explicit individual knowledge.
B. Tacit individual knowledge.
C. Explicit corporate knowledge.
D. Tacit corporate knowledge.
Answer: D

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NO.20 A well formed requirement is said to comply with which of the following acronyms?
A. MOSCOW.
B. SMART.
C. OSCAR.
D. MOST.
Answer: B

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Guide de formation plus récente de IBM 000-274

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Code d'Examen: 000-274
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliances Firmware V5.0 Solution Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

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NO.1 A web service proxy is receiving orders from partners as SOAP messages. The service is
required
to reject messages if the total order cost in the message does not match the sum of the individual
item costs. What can the solution implementer do to support this requirement?
A. Create an XML Schema that enforces the above business requirements and uses this schema
in a Validate action.
B. Create a style sheet which performs the mathematical comparison and uses either a
<dp:accept> or <dp:reject>, and use this in a Filter action.
C. Configure an SLM Statement with the Threshold Level that computes the total order cost, and if
it does not match the total value then throttlethe transaction.
D. Define the requirement in a WS-Policy attachment for the service. The web service proxy will
then automatically perform the mathematicalcomparison and reject any invalid messages.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A company-wide Certificate Authority (CA) provides its internal CA root and intermediary
certificates to the solution implementer to use for the creation of Validation Credentials that
validates several back end servers using SSL. The two lines of business in the company provide
services on two different domains on DataPower and two different banks of servers on the back
end. The requirement is to share a single copy of the CA certificates to create validation
credentials in two domains for both the lines of business to simplify maintenance. How can the
solution implementer satisfy the requirement?
A. Store the CA certificates in the sharedcert: folder from the default domain.
B. Store the CA certificates in the store:///cert folder from the default domain.
C. Create Validation Credentials in the default domain so it can be shared across all the domains.
D. Store the certificate in the cert: folder in any of the two domains and mark the certificate as
shared.
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company wants to enforce the run-time SOA governance using service level agreement (SLA)
and service level definitions (SLD) policy attachments for a line of business. The solution
implementer has configured a web service proxy service that uses a WebSphere Service Registry
and Repository (WSRR) subscription to meet this requirement. The WSRR server hosts the
governance enablement profile that contains SLA and SLD entities. The SLA objects in WSRR are
in SLA Active State. During a test run, it was identified that SLA policies from WSRR are not
enforced. How can the solution implementer resolve this situation to enforce SLA policies?
(choose 2) Verify that the:
A. SLA policies are accurate using probe.
B. SLA Enforcement Mode is set as "reject".
C. WSRR server object is set to version 7.5 or later.
D. WS-Policy Enforcement Mode is set as "enforce".
E. Fetch Policy Attachments option for the WSRR Subscription is set as "on".
Answer: C,E

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NO.4 A financial services company (Company) is using a DataPower appliance to securely access an
external service provider (Partner) that processes SOAP/HTTPS payment transactions and
returns the responses to the requesting application in the Company with payment confirmations.
The Partner requires that Company establish non-repudiation so that the financial services
company cannot deny that the payment transaction was originated by them. The Company
requires that the confirmation sent back from the Partner also requires non-repudiation. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing Company public certificate and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingPartner private key
B. Request Rule must Verify with crypto object containing the private key of Partner and
Response Rule must Sign with crypto object containingCompany public certificate
C. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the Company private key and Response
Rule must Verify with crypto object containingPartner public certificate
D. Request Rule must Sign with crypto object containing the public certificate of Partner and
Response Rule must Verify with crypto objectcontaining Company private key
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-274   000-274

NO.5 A solution implementer needs to create a new service on a DataPower virtual appliance. The new server needs to virtualize the back end server IP address from the end user while exposing
operations of a web service described by a given WSDL. Service Level Monitoring (SLM) is also to
be incorporated at the port level. Which service type should the solution implementer configure?
A. XML Firewall
B. Web Service Proxy
C. Multi-Protocol Gateway
D. Web Application Firewall
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-842
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Functional Tester for Java)
Questions et réponses: 54 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three actions are possible with RFT? (Choose three.)
A.use a wizard to substitute literals with datapool variables
B.substitute literals in verification points with datapool variables
C.create a datapool while recording a data-driven script
D.create scripts in c#
Correct:A B C

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.2 What can be tested when recording a verification point?
A.an objects data only
B.an objects data or properties only
C.whether or not the object is working
D.an objects data, properties, or existence
Correct:D

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.3 Functional Tester allows you to import an external datapool from which of the following ?
(Choose three.)
A.an external .csv file
B.another Functional Tester datapool
C.an existing TestManager datapool
D.an access (.mdb) file
Correct:A B C

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NO.4 When is the best time to use data-driven testing?
A.when the test only needs to be run once
B.when the test steps change based on the test input data
C.when the test must be run multiple times with different data
D.when the test requires a lot of manual data entry
Correct:C

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.5 How do you stop recording?
A.click the Stop Recording button on the recording toolbar
B.end the application under test
C.close RFT
D.close the recording monitor
Correct:A

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.6 While recording a script, the recording monitor _____.
A.appears at the conclusion of recording
B.is only displayed on the toolbar
C.does not appear
D.displays a message for each action
Correct:D

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.7 What can you use to select an object as a verification point?
A.the object finder, the object picker, or the object browser
B.the main object browser, the test object browser, or the extra object browser
C.the object finder, the test object browser, or the delay method
D.the delay method, the scripting method, or the pointer method
Correct:C

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.8 How do you start the application under test?
A.use the Windows Start menu
B.simply begin recording
C.open a command line and start the application by typing its name
D.click the Start Application button on the recording toolbar
Correct:D

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.9 You must _____ a script with a datapool before substituting literal values in the script with
references to datapool variables.
A.share
B.associate
C.run
D.disassociate
Correct:B

certification IBM   000-842   000-842 examen   000-842 examen   000-842

NO.10 A recording is started by:
A.Entering script_record on the command line
B.creating a script and then pressing the record button in the RFT application
C.starting the application under test
D.Starting RFT
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: 000-667
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Architectural Design of SOA Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 A mortgage loan provider currently has legacy applications utilized by a network of branches and
franchised agents. They want to expand by adding a new channel to allow independent mortgage brokers
to submit mortgage loan applications. They realize they must provide a differentiating offering to the
independent mortgage brokers to attract participants and grow the new channel.
How can SOA benefit their requirement?
A. By building an SOA with a secure connectivity layer, they could quickly enable the mortgage broker
channel to use their applications without any changes to the legacy system.
B. They could reduce the cost to develop new applications needed for each independent broker by
reusing services as integration code that is written for each broker's system to expedite development.
C. By service enabling the legacy applications and offering a Web-based portal for independent brokers,
they can minimize the impact to existing channels, minimize changes to existing code, and quickly create
an offering for the new channel.
D. By implementing security and governance as part of an SOA deployment, they can control access to
the current system to determine which brokers are using the system and personalize their marketing to
the high usage brokers.
Answer: C

IBM   000-667 examen   000-667   000-667

NO.2 An engineering services company is being asked by its customers to provide solutions that cross Line
of Business (LOB) areas. Each LOB is independent and is measured on its own profitability. The Chief
Operating Officer plans to make some organizational changes.
How could SOA enable this business transformation?
A. Provide an abstraction layer for each LOB application that will allow flexible composition of services
tailored to each LOB business model. Create an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) that supports integration of
systems across the LOBs for reuse.
B. Provide shared business services by migrating to a commercial Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
system that can be service-enabled for access through an enterprise portal or from existing individual
LOB applications.
C. Implement information as a service to consolidate data models and sharing across LOBs. Support
governance of the service portfolio at an enterprise level.
D. Create an architecture board for each LOB to introduce SOA processes and drive service identification,
goal modeling and business process re-engineering in support of mapping services to business
capabilities.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-667   000-667   certification 000-667

NO.3 The IBM SOA Foundation includes services that support business innovation and optimization.
What should be found in an SOA solution compliant with the SOA Foundation?
A. Automatic recognition of marketplace trends and dynamic reconfiguration of services in support
B. Business process simulation to predict the effect that process changes might have on the business
C. Alerts generated whenever business efficiency drops below a predefined threshold
D. An SOA dashboard for executives showing new business opportunities categorized by Return on
Investment (ROI)
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-667   certification 000-667   certification 000-667

NO.4 How can a designer most effectively integrate components developed in various technologies at
different companies into a composite application within an SOA?
A. Through careful coordination to ensure compatible interfaces
B. Through the use of industry standards such as SOAP over HTTPS
C. By placing the components in a service repository which will mediate the differences in their interfaces
D. By providing code mediation and transformation functions through a business process modeling effort
Answer: B

IBM   000-667 examen   000-667

NO.5 A retail catalog companys printing and mailing expenses are growing much more rapidly than revenue.
Each time they update their database, they ship more catalogs and customers call in with more
corrections.
Which evaluation and recommendation should the SOA Designer make?
A. Data quality is low. Master data management should be installed to cleanse and maintain data quality
both from data sources and updates from the call center.
B. Third party mail lists are inconsistent. Use process modeling to identify when multiple records are
created and how multiple catalogs get printed. Then use process simulation to optimize new processes.
C. Processes do not incorporate data cleansing. Create an information service that retrieves similar
records and displays them in a portlet, so operators can see multiple records and work with the customer
to eliminate them.
D. Data entry is a very common source of error and customers are often inconsistent as well. Operator
generated updates should be re-implemented to the indirect exposure solution pattern to separate data
entry from record update permitting a data cleansing step in the update processes.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is it necessary to enforce policies and monitor services within SOA Services Management?
A. To insure data integrity and correlate business processes
B. To trace transactions and diagnose problems
C. To collect key performance metrics
D. To ensure service availability
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-667   certification 000-667   000-667

NO.7 A government agency wants to ensure the selected patterns and code standards set down by their SOA
governance body are adhered to.
Which type of tool will support this?
A. Code generation
B. Parsing
C. UML modeling
D. Data modeling
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-667   000-667   000-667   000-667

NO.8 A company wants to integrate a number of existing best-of-breed applications by implementing service
facades and an Enterprise Service Bus (ESB). The initial scenario involves the transfer of order
information between a number of these backend services depending on business rules.
An SOA Designer is asked to capture the functional requirements.
What is the most appropriate starting point.?
A. Analysis of the information requirements of the existing applications
B. Investigation into appropriate industry standards for transferring data
C. Creation of use cases to understand what the services may be and how they interact
D. Define the component model associated with the existing applications and specify the service
interfaces
Answer: C

certification IBM   certification 000-667   000-667   000-667 examen   000-667

NO.9 A Fortune 100 company is migrating its Enterprise Application Integration (EAI) architecture to SOA.
The intent is to begin exposing its capabilities to business partners. The CIO is thinking about building a
high speed, custom messaging solution so there is capacity for future growth.
What should the SOA Designer say about the long-term implications of that direction?
A. A custom messaging solution could provide performance advantages if development priority is
allocated to provide standards-based connectors and adapters for business partners to connect.
B. XML messages can be transformed at wire speed using Enterprise Service Bus (ESB) appliances like
WebSphere DataPower SOA Appliance, so it is not necessary to be concerned with that part of the
system's performance.
C. Total cost of ownership will increase with custom middleware. Open standards-based commercial
messaging products are more interoperable, extensible, scalable, replaceable, and reliable than
custom-built systems.
D. It will take a serious commitment to detailed technical support to make this happen. It is always a
tradeoff between standards-based compliance and performance. The implementation of the custom
messaging will need to provide serious performance advantages to business partners.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-667   000-667

NO.10 A team is evaluating the maturity of a customer's solution architecture relative to the IBM SOA
Foundation. It is discovered that the customer has invested heavily in an internally-developed Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) and that their ESB has functionality expected to be found in other SOA Foundation
services, especially Process Services, Business Services, and Information Services.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Continue development of the ESB because the architecture is generally compliant with the SOA
Foundation.
B. Stop development of the ESB because the architecture violates the principle of loose coupling among
services.
C. Continue using the ESB but begin a transition to a vendor-supported, standards-compliant ESB.
D. Modify development priorities to shift Process Services functionality to other parts of the Solution
Architecture.
Answer: C

IBM   000-667   certification 000-667   000-667

NO.11 A company has an existing message-based middleware solution that allows exchanging business
information among several applications using a topic-based publish-subscribe integration pattern. As part
of its SOA strategy, the company is now embarking on service-enabling the applications and wants to
employ the publish-subscribe pattern using Web services technology.
Which Web services specification best addresses this need?
A. WS-Federation
B. WS-Addressing
C. WS-Notification
D. WS-MetaDataExchange
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-667   000-667

NO.12 A midsize city is experiencing rapid growth that requires extensive changes in city land use regulations.
Under this pressure, many land use disputes are getting caught in endless inter-departmental exchanges
to complete data collection using a variety of completion criteria. This is angering both citizens and land
developers.
Which approach to SOA is likely to have the greatest impact?
A. Apply governance policies and procedures to control inter-departmental exchanges.
B. Align the departments with a common end-to-end process with shared business services.
C. Align the departments with a common data model and data access services to avoid confusion and
duplication.
D. Create citizens portals to provide a mechanism for citizens to more easily monitor and manage their
role in the process.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-667   000-667 examen   000-667 examen   000-667

NO.13 What is the next step while architecting an SOA solution after documenting the business processes?
A. Determine the operations required to realize each process.
B. Select a business steward for each process and instruct the steward to identify re-usable services.
C. Identify the services needed to realize each business process and group them into logical components.
D. Identify core and non-core business components.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-667   000-667   000-667

NO.14 The SOA reference architecture identifies core services including Interaction, Process, Information,
Partner, Access, and Infrastructure.
What is one valid reason for excluding one or more of these services in an SOA?
A. The application is predominantly middleware in nature, eliminating the need for presentation services.
B. The consumer and the provider belong to different companies.
C. The business sponsor has set budget constraints on solution architecture and the architectural
components to be included have to be prioritized.
D. The customer's internal politics make the specification too difficult.
Answer: A

IBM   000-667   000-667   000-667

NO.15 A large airline has decided to use SOA as a means to reduce costs through the use of an Enterprise
Service Bus (ESB) based infrastructure. The IT strategy group has purchased sophisticated messaging
middleware and prototyped some services related to accessing passenger information. The airline needs
to decide what to do next.
Which recommendation should be made?
A. Move the prototype to production to assess the impact on the enterprise architecture.
B. Identify a governance method to define policies and procedures for sharing the ESB infrastructure.
C. Align an SOA project with a business initiative and select high-value services through process analysis.
D. Add a process server to the infrastructure to provide a means to use the passenger information
services.
Answer: C

IBM   000-667   000-667   000-667

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Code d'Examen: 000-M12
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Workplace Content Management)
Questions et réponses: 49 Q&As

000-M12 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/000-M12.html

NO.1 Can DataStage and Information Server access mainframe (zOS) data sources such as IMS, VSAM,
Model 204 and ADABAS (among others)?
A. No.DataStage can only access local flat files.
B. Yes.DataStage can access any remote source using all the Connectivity capabilities of
Federation Server and Classic Federation, or via connections to partner offerings.
C. No.DataStage can only read data files via ODBC.
D. No.DataStage can only read data files via JDBC.
Answer: B

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NO.2 There are many ways to exploit the concept of re-use with DataStage/QualityStage. Which feature
below describes a graphical unit of re-use that can be included in any Job?
A. Graphical Job Sequencer
B. Performance monitor
C. Stage palette
D. Shared Containers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is NOT a benefit of Information Analyzer?
A. Gain insight into your data source
B. Reduce hardware requirements
C. Improve personnel productivity
D. Reduce the time to profile data by 70%
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12   000-M12

NO.4 Which of the following cannot be published by WebSphere Information Services Director (WISD)
as a Service?
A. DataStage Jobs
B. Teradata Stored Procedures
C. Federation Queries
D. QualityStage Jobs
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does Information Analyzer share meta data and results with the rest of Information Server?
A. Emails are automatically sent to all Information Server users
B. An html page is generated with analysis results
C. Analysis results and notes from data profiling research are saved in themeta data layer of Information
Server and are available for viewing in DataStage and other Information Server tools
D. Automatic RSS publication of analysis results
Answer: C

IBM   000-M12   000-M12

NO.6 What function does Business Glossary NOT help enterprises achieve?
A. Agree on common business terminology
B. Assign data stewards to manage business terms
C. Create a repository for ALL their corporatemeta data
D. Classify technical objects using accepted terms and definitions
Answer: C

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NO.7 QualityStage delivers higher match rates than other products in the industry for de-duplication and
matching. What is the unique capability of QualityStage that helps QualityStage deliver these higher
match rates?
A. Statistical Pattern Counting
B. Bit level character comparisons
C. Probabalistic Record Linkage
D. Phrase parsing
Answer: C

IBM   000-M12   000-M12 examen   certification 000-M12

NO.8 Does DataStage have the ability to run a process across multiple machines in a GRID?
A. No.DataStage can only be run on single SMP machines with multiple CPUs
B. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid of homogeneous environments
C. Yes.DataStage can run across a grid that includes Windows, Unix and mainframe processors
D. No.DataStage only runs on one CPU
Answer: B

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NO.9 Are DataStage and QualityStage integrated at the interface, metadata, and engine levels?
A. No. They are only integrated at runtime.
B. Yes. They are integrated for developers at design time, at the engine for runtime, and at themeta data
level for impact analysis and data lineage.
C. No. They still have separate developer interfaces.
D. No. They can invoke each other at run time at the engine level, but have a separatemeta data model.
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-M12   000-M12 examen   000-M12 examen   certification 000-M12

NO.10 What is the goal of the various application Packs that exist for Information Server?
A. Better pricing and installation options
B. To accelerate team development
C. To enhance of source code management
D. To support loading/unloading and data integration with popular packaged applications such as
Oracle Financials, SAP, and JD Edwards
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-M12   000-M12 examen   000-M12

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Code d'Examen: 000-806
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
Questions et réponses: 52 Q&As

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NO.1 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state
of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

certification IBM   certification 000-806   certification 000-806

NO.2 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-806   000-806 examen   000-806   000-806 examen

NO.3 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-806   000-806   000-806 examen   certification 000-806

NO.4 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

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NO.5 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is
generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-019
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 Which permission is required before the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installation runs in a
non-global zone on a Solaris environment?
A. PRIV_PROC_EXEC
B. PRIV_PROC_FORK
C. PRIV_SYS_NETCONFIG
D. PRIV_NET_RAWACCESS
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which product is affected by installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on UNIX as a root user
on the same server?
A. CCMDB
B. OMNIbus
C. Tivoli Integrated Portal
D. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-019   certification 000-019   000-019 examen

NO.3 Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which browser version is supported in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for a successful installer
launchpad?
A. Safari 3.0
B. Firefox 2.0
C. Internet Explorer 5
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: B

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019

NO.5 Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose
two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB

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NO.6 Before installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on 64-bit Windows 2008 or 2003 Server,
which version of Windows Installer is required for a successful installation?
A. Version 4.0
B. Version 4.1
C. Version 4.4
D. Version 4.5
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose
three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

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NO.8 Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which three databases are supported for storing the topology database within IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 8.2
B. Oracle 10g
C. MySQL 4.0
D. MySQL 5.0
E. MSSQL 2000
F. PostgreSQL 8.3
Answer: ABD

IBM examen   000-019   000-019

NO.10 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration
requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

IBM   000-019 examen   000-019

NO.12 What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on
the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019

NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

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NO.14 On an AIX 5.3 system where there is no supported Web browser installed, what are the two correct
commands to run the installer in order to complete a custom IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition
installation in a supported mode? (Choose two.)
A. <path to installation files>/install.sh
B. <path to installation files>/launchpad.sh
C. <path to installation files>/launchpad.exe
D. <path to installation files>/install.sh i console
E. <path to installation files>/install.sh f <path to silent install file>
Answer: DE

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NO.15 Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD

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NO.17 What is the primary issue with installing and running IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition as a root
user on a single AIX system?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. There are no issues related to installing as root on AIX.
C. Some Tivoli components cannot be installed as root user on AIX.
D. There are X-windows libraries that cannot be run as a root user without creating a security problem.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of
which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.19 A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread
across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100
interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)
based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A

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NO.20 When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager)
deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli
Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B

IBM   000-019 examen   000-019 examen   000-019

NO.21 When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019   certification 000-019

NO.22 Which post installation task needs to be performed to allow a non-root user to start IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) when it has been installed as root on a UNIX system?
A. Tivoli Network Manager cannot be installed as the root user.
B. Re-install as a non-root user and run the processes as non-root.
C. Run the appropriate script to set permissions for the non-root user.
D. No tasks need to be performed as the system always runs as non-root.
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-019 examen   000-019   000-019 examen

NO.23 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a
custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

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NO.24 Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so
that data in reports can be viewed?
A. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

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NO.25 Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a
new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-019   000-019

NO.26 Where is the Netcool Common Information Model (NCIM) database created with the script,
'create_db2_database.sh NCIM ncim'?
A. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 and the user ncim
B. the NCIM database on the local DB2 and the user db2inst1
C. the NCIM database on the local DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
D. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-019   000-019 examen

NO.27 Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using
the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB

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NO.28 When deploying IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition, what is a valid consideration when
determining if the installation method should be launchpad?
A. whether the deployment requires a custom or default installation
B. the location of the Netcool Common Information Model database
C. whether $NCHOME has been defined as an environmental variable
D. whether the server meets the prerequisites for a launchpad installation
Answer: D

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NO.29 In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network
Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 000-737
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DB2 9 System Administrator for z/OS Exam)
Questions et réponses: 102 Q&As

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NO.1 A DB2 subsystem is being migrated/converted from DB2 Version 8 to DB2 9. The subsystem currently
has these characteristics: new DB2 9 functions are not available; no DB2 9 objects can exist; the
subsystem cannot fall-back to CM (conversion mode); the subsystem cannot fall-back to Version 8; the
subsystem cannot coexist with any Version 8 systems in a data sharing group. Which mode describes the
DB2 subsystem?
A.CM* (conversion mode*)
B.ENFM (enabling-new-function mode)
C.ENFM* (enabling-new-function mode*)
D.NFM (new-function mode)
Answer:B

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NO.2 An accounting report shows high class 3 times. Which three could contribute to the class 3 times?
(Choose three.)
A.elapsed time
B.not accounted time
C.page latch
D.service task switch
E.synchronous I/O
Answer:C D E

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NO.3 Which two accounting trace classes must be active when tracing package and DBRM related activity?
(Choose two.)
A.class 1
B.class 2
C.class 3
D.class 5
E.class 7
Answer:A E

IBM   certification 000-737   certification 000-737   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.4 You create a system level point-in-time recovery conditional restart control record with SYSPITR value
of FFFFFFFFFFFF. Afterwards, you run the RESTORE SYSTEM utility. Which statement is correct?
A.RESTORE SYSTEM does not do anything, because this SYSPITR value indicates a "no-operation".
B.The specified LRSN is an IBM internal SYSPITR value, reserved for serviceability only.
C.RESTORE SYSTEM fails because the SYSPITR value is outside the range of valid log points.
D.The whole DB2 data sharing group is recovered without log truncation.
Answer:D

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NO.5 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

IBM   000-737   000-737 examen

NO.6 Within which two DB2 address spaces may the execution of a DB2 stored procedure occur? (Choose
two.)
A.Workload Manager SPAS
B.Database Services (DBM1)
C.DB2-established SPAS
D.Distributed Data Facility (DDF)
E.System Services (MSTR)
Answer:A B

IBM   certification 000-737   certification 000-737   000-737   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.7 Which statement is true regarding disaster recovery scenarios?
A.When using the RESTORE SYSTEM utility, each DB2 member must use the same SYSPITR value
when creating conditional restart control records (CRCR).
B.When using an advanced disk mirroring solution, a conditional restart of DB2 must still be performed at
the disaster site.
C.With a synchronous peer to peer replication solution, a group restart is not required for a data sharing
group since everything is synchronously mirrored.
D.A backup taken from the BACKUP SYSTEM utility cannot be used for object level recovery for the
catalog/directory during a disaster recovery scenario.
Answer:A

IBM   000-737   000-737   000-737 examen   000-737 examen

NO.8 You have to recover your complete DB2 system by image copies and the RECOVER utility. You start the
recovery with DSNDB01.SYSUTILX and DSNDB01.DBD01. Which table space must be recovered next?
A.DSNDB01.SPT01
B.DSNDB01.SYSLGRNX
C.DSNDB06.SYSCOPY
D.DSNDB06.SYSDBASE
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which two statements regarding system parameters are true? (Choose two.)
A.Indexes can now be mapped to 8K and 16K buffer pools assigned by default using the system
parameter IDXBPOOL.
B.Implicit table space data sets are always defined at create time without a system parameter to override
this behavior.
C.Indexes can be compressed for an entire subsystem by setting the IDXCOMP system parameter to
YES.
D.The default for BIND option DBPROTOCOL can no longer be specified using the system parameter
DBPROTCL.
E.The amount of work file storage used by any one agent cannot be controlled via system parameters.
Answer:A D

IBM examen   000-737   000-737   certification 000-737

NO.10 Regarding SVC dumps for the DBM1 address space, what should be reviewed to determine the DB2
failing component?
A.the GRS summary
B.the LOGREC symptom string
C.the RMM Control Block Analysis
D.the RSM summary
Answer:B

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NO.11 By examining a DB2 accounting report, how can you determine if DASD I/O contention is a factor in a
poor performing application?
A.Divide the number of get pages by the number of synchronous I/Os.
B.Divide the synchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
C.Divide the asynchronous I/O wait time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
D.Divide the class 2 elapsed time by the number of synchronous I/Os.
Answer:B

IBM examen   certification 000-737   000-737   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.12 The DB2-supplied SQL Procedure Processor stored procedure DSNTPSMP requires which two for
execution? (Choose two.)
A.DB2 for z/OS REXX Language Support
B.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB=1
C.Workload Manager SPAS with NUMTCB > 1
D.Optimization Service Center
E.Java Virtual Machine
Answer:A B

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NO.13 A user job runs a very long time without commit and then the application abends. The job updated a
critical table that is used by many applications. The back out is taking a long time. Which statement
describes the appropriate action to take?
A.Cancel the DB2 system since this is a critical resource that is needed by many applications.
B.Issue the -CANCEL THREAD(token) NOBACKOUT.
C.Let DB2 continue with the back out.
D.Restart the system using the LBACKOUT=AUTO system parameter.
Answer:C

IBM examen   000-737   000-737   000-737

NO.14 DSNDB06.SYSPLAN runs out of space. Which steps should be performed to resolve the situation?
A.1) COPY DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM
data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
6) RECOVER DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
B.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3) Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN
VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more space. 5) Start
DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) LOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
C.1) UNLOAD DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) ALTER PRIQTY to a larger value. 3) LOAD REPLACE
DSNDB06.SYSCOPY.
D.1) REORG UNLOAD SHRLEVEL REFERENCE DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 2) Stop DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 3)
Delete DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set. 4) Define DSNDB06.SYSPLAN VSAM data set with more
space. 5) Start DSNDB06.SYSPLAN. 6) REORG RESUME DSNDB06.SYSPLAN.
Answer:A

IBM   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.15 Your administrative scheduler shows message DSNA679I indicating that one or both copies of your
task lists is not accessible or is corrupted. Your analysis shows that only the VSAM file is corrupt, but the
ADMIN_TASKS table is still operational. Which statement describes how to correct this situation?
A.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and let DB2 perform an autonomic recovery using the
content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
B.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use REPRO utility to copy the contents of the VSAM
cluster containing the ADMIN_TASKS table.
C.Create an empty version of the VSAM task list and use DB2 command -RECOVER TASKLIST to
recover the content of the ADMIN_TASKS table.
D.No manual interaction is needed as long as the ADMIN_TASKS table is still accessible.
Answer:A

IBM examen   000-737   000-737 examen   certification 000-737   000-737 examen

NO.16 Which privilege is required to use the ACCESS command?
A.DISPLAY
B.STARTDB
C.MONITOR
D.ACCESSDB
Answer:B

IBM   000-737   000-737   000-737 examen

NO.17 A customer has just migrated their DB2 system to V9 new function mode. They currently use the
BACKUP SYSTEM utility and have optionally dumped the backup to tape. Which action should be
performed to only use the system level backup that was taken to disk?
A.Run the DSNJU003 utility and modify the system point in time backup record to have
DUMPSTATE=NONE.
B.Use the BACKUPTYPE(DASD) keyword on the RESTORE SYSTEM utility.
C.Use the TAPEDUMP(NORECSYS) keyword on the BACKUP SYSTEM utility when the backup is taken.
D.Set the RESTORE_RECOVER_FROMDUMP system parameter to NO.
Answer:D

IBM examen   certification 000-737   000-737

NO.18 You are planning the migration of your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to version 9. Rebinding existing
packages is highly recommended, but you are also worrying about potential problems that might occur
with new access paths after rebind. Which action gives you the option to rebind packages with the ability
to fall back to the original access path if performance problems are encountered?
A.Use REBIND PACKAGE option PLANMGMT(BASIC) or (EXTENDED).
B.Use REBIND PACKAGE option REOPT(ONCE).
C.Use REBIND PACKAGE option OPTHINT.
D.Use REBIND PACKAGE option KEEPDYNAMIC(YES).
Answer:A

IBM   000-737   certification 000-737   certification 000-737   000-737 examen   000-737

NO.19 An accounting trace shows a high get page per SQL ratio for a query which retrieves just one row each
time it is executed. Which two situations could account for the high ratio? (Choose two.)
A.Use of a matching unique index scan.
B.Use of a nonmatching index scan.
C.Use of an index with low cardinality.
D.Use of an index with high cardinality.
E.Use of a single column index that is a GENERATED ALWAYS identity column.
Answer:B C

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NO.20 A DASD controller error occurs which results in all of the active logs being marked as "STOPPED" by
DB2. Which steps should be performed to resolve the log status after the controller error has been
repaired?
A.1) Stop DB2. 2) Start DB2.
B.1) Stop DB2. 2) REPRO the archive logs to the corresponding active logs. 3) Start DB2.
C.1) Stop DB2. 2) Use DSN1LOGP to make sure last log record written matches the information in the
BSDS. 3) Do a conditional restart specifying ENDRBA to the highest RBA in the log.
D.1) Use the change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to delete the active logs from the BSDS. 2) Use the
change log inventory utility (DSNJU003) to add the active logs back into the BSDS.
Answer:D

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NO.21 You are migrating your DB2 subsystem from version 8 to DB2 9. You have already used the
user-defined RTS tables in version 8 and you are planning to also use RTS in version 9. Which two
statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.DSNRTSDB is integrated into the DB2 9 catalog.
B.The existing the real-time statistics data is copied from your user-defined tables to catalog tables as part
of the migration to CM.
C.You can safely drop your user-defined RTS database once you are in ENFM.
D.You should keep your user-defined RTS database until you have fully migrated to NFM.
E.Execute DDL in member DSNTESS in SDSNSAMP to create the RTS database.
Answer:A C

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NO.22 A customer is performing a traditional image copy disaster recovery test. The systems programmer
creates a conditional restart control record (CRCR) but detects an error before starting DB2. Which action
should be performed to correct the CRCR record?
A.First use CRESTART,DELETE to delete the error CRCR record then CRESTART,CREATE to add a
new one.
B.Start DB2, reply "M" to the WTOR that is displayed from the first CRCR record to modify the CRCR
parameters.
C.Use CRESTART,MODIFY to modify the parameters of the error CRCR record.
D.Use CRESTART,CREATE to create a new CRCR record.
Answer:D

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NO.23 What is a benefit of using the in-memory work file in DB2 9?
A.Improves performance using TEMP database.
B.Avoids I/Os for the declared global temporary tables.
C.Improves performance for small sorts.
D.Sorts a large number of rows faster.
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which two statements are true regarding a traditional image copy disaster recovery in a data sharing
environment? (Choose two )
A.All members defined to the data sharing group must be restarted at the disaster recovery site.
B.When using change log inventory (DSNJU003), the latest log record sequence number that can be
used is the oldest last written log record of all members participating in the restart.
C.Only one conditional restart control record (CRCR) needs to be created for the data sharing group and
all DB2 members will utilize this CRCR during restart.
D.SETXCF FORCE commands should be used to purge DB2 coupling facility structures prior to staring
the first DB2 member.
E.The catalog and directory must be recovered by first data sharing member brought up at the disaster
recovery site and all other members must not be started before this recovery is finished.
Answer:B D

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NO.25 In a data sharing system, a system programmer observes very high page p-lock contention. Which two
actions can they take to reduce this contention? (Choose two.)
A.Reduce row level locking for objects used in high volume transactions.
B.For table spaces defined with LOCKSIZE ANY, use ISOLATION(UR) for high volume query transactions
using these objects.
C.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use COMPRESS NO.
D.Ensure heavy used indexes are defined with COPY NO.
E.ALTER heavy used table spaces to use TRACKMOD NO.
Answer:A E

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NO.26 There is a suspected problem with catalog table space DSNDB06.SYSDBASE. Should a problem be
discovered, which series of tasks could you run to analyze and resolve the problem?
A.Run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
B.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DBD against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary.
C.START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(UT); run DSN1CHKR against DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run
REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START DSNDB06.SYSDBASE ACCESS(RW).
D.STOP DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run CHECK DATA to validate RI constraints; run DSN1CHKR
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE; run REPAIR DSNDB06.SYSDBASE as necessary, START
DSNDB06.SYSDBASE.
Answer:C

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NO.27 Which two actions must be performed for a data sharing traditional image copy disaster recovery?
(Choose two.)
A.Use STARTRBA=ENDRBA for the conditional restart control record.
B.Start DB2 using the LIGHT(YES) keyword.
C.Use DEFER=ALL in the system parameters during the first restart.
D.Modify the IRLM start up proc to specify SCOPE=LOCAL.
E.Use the SETXCF FORCE command to delete DB2 CF structures.
Answer:C E

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NO.28 Which three statements are correct for automatic management of buffer pool storage in DB2 9?
(Choose three.)
A.You do not need to ALTER BUFFERPOOL with AUTOSIZE(YES) to enable this functionality.
B.DB2 provides sizing information to WLM.
C.DB2 communicates to WLM each time allied agents encounter delays due to read I/O.
D.DB2 periodically reports BPOOL size and random read hit ratios to WLM.
E.The automatic altered buffer pool sizes are resized to the original with the recycle of the DB2
sub-system.
Answer:B C D

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NO.29 Which two methods can be used to configure the use of a SSL secure port on a DB2 for z/OS server?
(Choose two.)
A.Specify "Y" in the SECURE column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
B.Specify a secure port value in the PORT column of SYSIBM.SYSLOCATIONS.
C.Update the DDF statement in the BSDS using DSNJU003.
D.Specify the TCP/IP port number in the DRDA SECURE PORT field of the Distributed Data Facility Panel
2 (DSNTIP5).
E.Specify the value of the secure port in the DRDA PORT field of DSNTIP5.
Answer:C D

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NO.30 A number of jobs are waiting for an allied connection to access a DB2 subsystem. What should be
done to increase the number of allied connections that can be allocated concurrently?
A.Increase the value of MAXDBAT.
B.Increase the value of CTHREAD.
C.Increase the value of MAXKEEPD.
D.Increase the value of MAXDS.
Answer:B

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