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Code d'Examen: EADA10
Nom d'Examen: Esri (ArcGIS Desktop Associate)
Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two spatial query operators will select point features that are surrounded by polygon features?
(Select two)
A. Completely Contain
B. Are Completely Within
C. Share a Line Segment With
D. Intersect
E. Touch the Boundary Of
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 An ArcGIS user has two feature classes. One is spatially inaccurate but contains accurate tabular data,
the other is spatially accurate but contains inaccurate tabular data. The ArcGIS user needs a single
feature class that is spatially and tabularly accurate
Which tool should the ArcGIS user employ to accomplish this?
A. Join Field
B. Attribute Transfer
C. Copy Features
D. Load Data
Answer: A

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NO.3 An ArcGIS user creates a locator from a polyline feature class that exists in a feature dataset.
Where can the locator be saved?
A. in a feature dataset
B. in a Windows folder
C. in a topology dataset
D. in a feature class
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which tool from the ArcGIS System toolbox allows the option to create a schema-only layer package
(Ipk) in ArcGIS Desktop?
A. Package Layer
B. Export Replica Schema
C. Package Map
D. Create Schematic Folder
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two actions can be taken to repair an.mxd file with broken data sources in ArcMap? (Choose
two)
A. right click the layer(s) in the Table of Contents and select Repair Data Source
B. repair the layer sources in the Map Document Properties
C. use the Repair Data Sources geoprocessing tool
D. use the Set Data Source option from Layer Properties
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 The ArcGIS user works with a map document that contains a very detailed image that takes several
seconds to draw when panning.
Which action can the ArcGIS user take that will improve the performance when panning in ArcMap?
A. put the image layer in a group laver
B. set the reference scale on the image layer
C. put the image laver in a basemap layer
D. make the image layer selectable
Answer: D

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NO.7 An ArcGIS user is required to create a new feature class output of rivers of California Currently, the user
has a feature class of the USA rivers and a feature class of the California state boundary.
Which process would generate the necessary output?
A. Union tool with the USA rivers and California state boundary selected for input features
B. Clip tool with the USA rivers as input features and California state boundary as clip features
C. Union tool with the USA rivers as input and California state boundary as output feature class
D. Clip tool with the California state boundary as input features and USA rivers as clip features
Answer: C

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NO.8 When should an ArcGIS user change the reference scale of an existing map annotation?
A. when the user adds a scale bar to the map layout
B. when the user brings data into the map that has a projected coordinate system
C. when the user creates a new feature linked annotation feature class and adds it to a new data frame for
editing
D. when the user uses the same map template to create a second map that contains data from a different
geographic area
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 When is a transformation required while projecting data?
A. when the input data source is a network
B. when the input and output geographic coordinate systems are different
C. when the input and output spatial references are different
D. when the input feature class has an unknown spatial reference
Answer: B

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NO.10 An ArcGIS user wants to share layer and attribute information in a map document with a colleague
who does NOT have ArcGIS Desktop
The ArcGIS user must export in which format in order for the colleague to view the information?
A. PDF
B. SVG
C. PNG
D. BMP
Answer: A

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NO.11 An ArcGIS user is working within a map document and has realized that the Table of Contents is no
longer available. Which menu must the user choose to add the Table of Contents to his map document?
A. Insert menu
B. View menu
C. Edit menu
D. Windows menu
E. Add menu
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two factors should be considered when determining appropriateness of a dataset for a task?
(Choose two)
A. display colors
B. scale of data
C. geometry type
D. feature class names
E. configuration keywords
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Which limit is set for file geodatabase name length for ArcGIS Desktop.?
A. no limit
B. limited to 32 characters
C. limited to 255 characters
D. limited to the number of characters the operating system allows in a folder name
Answer: C

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NO.14 An ArcGIS user is calculating the mean slope per watershed using the Block Statistics geoprocessing
tool. Which ArcGIS Desktop extension should be enabled to use this tool?
A. Geostatistical Analyst
B. Spatial Analyst
C. Network Analyst
D. Schematics
Answer: B

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NO.15 An ArcGIS user is analyzing an earthquake dataset to investigate the relationship between magnitude
and duration of incidents. The user displays magnitude on an x-axis and duration on a y-axis.
Which type of graph is the user employing?
A. box plot
B. histogram
C. scatter plot
D. bar
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: S90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing)
Questions et réponses: 76 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?
A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with
custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent
and unified service endpoint layer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements is true?
A. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design
options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service
contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. "Contract first" design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked.
However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be
designed or established.
D. "Contract first" design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when
delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually
increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project
delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual
governance burden of services.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements is true.?
A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term "Web service" must always be
synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term "service".
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented
computing. Which of these statements is false?
A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated
systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of
business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business
analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must
become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can
independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations
into account.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With
service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to
reduce the need for __________ effort.
A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is false?
A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that
the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the
design of individual services.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is false?
A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements does not make sense?
A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that
may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to
resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly
composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to
increase intrinsic interoperability.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a
service-oriented architecture?
A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged,
regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no
longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to
change over time.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C90-01A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Fundamental Cloud Computing(C90.01))
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Service agents are provided only by runtime environments and operating systems. As a result, service
agents cannot be custom-developed. Select the correct answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.2 Measured usage is only limited to tracking statistics for billing purposes. It does not encompass the
general monitoring of IT resources and related usage reporting. Therefore, measured usage is only
relevant to clouds that charge for usage. Select the correct answer. ?
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 .A(n) ____________________ cloud is a cloud environment owned by a third-party cloud provider and
accessible to external cloud consumers. The IT resources in the cloud are generally offered to cloud
consumers at a cost. Select the correct answer.
A. public
B. on-premise
C. private
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The Limited Portability Between Cloud Providers challenge of cloud computing can occur when an
absence of industry standards (or an absence of compliance to industry standards) requires that cloud
consumers build cloud-based solutions to conform to proprietary requirements imposed by cloud
providers. This makes it more difficult to move to new cloud providers in the future.Select the correct
answer.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following are common types of cloud service consumers? SelectALL THAT APPLY
A. Software programs capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
B. Services capable of remotely accessing cloud services with published service contracts.
C. Humans that use workstations running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned
as cloud services.
D. Mobile devices running software capable of remotely accessing IT resources positioned as cloud
services.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.1 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
B. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
C. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
D. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
Answer: B,C

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NO.2 Which of the following protocols does IPsec use to perform various security functions in the network?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Skinny Client Control Protocol
B. Authentication Header
C. Encapsulating Security Payload
D. Internet Key Exchange
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following proxy servers is placed anonymously between the client and remote server and
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A. Web proxy server
B. Open proxy server
C. Forced proxy server
D. Caching proxy server
Answer: C

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NO.4 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project for testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to corrupt an IDS signature database so that performing attacks on
the server is made easy and he can observe the flaws in the We-are-secure server. To perform his task,
he first of all sends a virus that continuously changes its signature to avoid detection from IDS. Since the
new signature of the virus does not match the old signature, which is entered in the IDS signature
database, IDS becomes unable to point out the malicious virus. Which of the following IDS evasion
attacks is John performing?
A. Session splicing attack
B. Evasion attack
C. Polymorphic shell code attack
D. Insertion attack
Answer: C

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NO.5 You work as a Network Architect for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a corporate LAN network. You
will have to perform the following tasks:
l Limit events that occur from security threats such as viruses, worms, and spyware.
l Restrict access to the network based on identity or security posture.
Which of the following services will you deploy in the network to accomplish the tasks?
A. NetFlow
B. Protocol-Independent Multicast
C. Network Admission Control
D. Firewall Service Module
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following commands configures a router to encrypt all passwords entered after the
command has been executed, as well as all passwords already on the running configuration?
A. no service password-encryption
B. enable password-encryption
C. no enable password-encryption
D. service password-encryption
Answer: D

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NO.7 You work as a Security Manger for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You want to scroll real-time network traffic to a command console in a readable format. Which of the
following command line utilities will you use to accomplish the task?
A. WinPcap
B. WinDump
C. iptables
D. libpcap
Answer: B

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NO.8 A scenario involves a pool of users with private IP addresses who need to access the Internet;
however, the company has a limited number of IP addresses and needs to ensure users occupy only one
public IP address.
Which technology is used to allow a pool of users to share one global IP address for Internet access?
A. Port Address Translation
B. Per-user Address Translation
C. Pool Address Translation
D. Private Address Translation
Answer: A

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NO.9 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. A project has been assigned to him to
secure access to the network of the company from all possible entry points. He segmented the network
into several subnets and installed firewalls all over the network. He has placed very stringent rules on all
the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except the ports that must be used. He does need to have
port 80 open since his company hosts a website that must be accessed from the Internet. Adam is still
worried about the programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels.
Which of the following is the most effective way to protect the network of the company from an attacker
using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A. Block ICMP type 13 messages
B. Block ICMP type 3 messages
C. Block all outgoing traffic on port 21
D. Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following ICMPv6 neighbor discovery messages is sent by hosts to request an immediate
router advertisement, instead of waiting for the next scheduled advertisement?
A. Router Advertisement
B. Neighbor Advertisement
C. Router Solicitation
D. Neighbor Solicitation
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following can be monitored by using the host intrusion detection system (HIDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Computer performance
B. File system integrity
C. Storage space on computers
D. System files
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which of the following limits the number of packets seen by tcpdump?
A. BPF-based filter
B. Recipient filtering
C. Sender filtering
D. IFilters
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled?
A. Dictionary attack
B. Smurf attack
C. Teardrop attack
D. Password guessing attack
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is the default port for POP3?
A. 25
B. 21
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following intrusion detection systems (IDS) monitors network traffic and compares it
against an established baseline?
A. Network-based
B. File-based
C. Signature-based
D. Anomaly-based
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following devices is used to identify out-of-date software versions, applicable patches,
system upgrades, etc?
A. Retinal scanner
B. Fingerprint reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following number ranges is used for the IP Standard ACL?
A. 100-199
B. 1000-1099
C. 600-699
D. 1-99
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following are the reasons that network administrators use Access Control Lists?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Encrypting data to be routed
B. Removing weak user password
C. Controlling VTY access into a router
D. Filtering traffic as it passes through a router
Answer: C,D

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NO.19 A packet filtering firewall inspects each packet passing through the network and accepts or rejects it
based on user-defined rules. Based on which of the following information are these rules set to filter the
packets?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Layer 4 protocol information
B. Actual data in the packet
C. Interface of sent or received traffic
D. Source and destination Layer 3 address
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.20 Choose the best explanation for the resulting error when entering the command below.
A. The command is attempting to create a standard access list with extended access list param eters.
B. The ACL commands should be entered from the (config-router) configuration mode.
C. The wildcard mask is not provided for the source and destination addresses.
D. The port number given does not correspond with the proper transport protocol.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following IDs is used to reassemble the fragments of a datagram at the destination point?
A. IP identification number
B. SSID
C. MAK ID
D. IP address
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following are the countermeasures against a man-in-the-middle attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using Secret keys for authentication.
B. Using public key infrastructure authentication.
C. Using Off-channel verification.
D. Using basic authentication.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.23 Which of the following algorithms is used as a default algorithm for ESP extension header in IPv6?
A. Electronic Codebook (ECB) Mode
B. Cipher Block Chaining (CBC) Mode
C. Propagating Cipher Block Chaining (PCBC) Mode
D. Cipher Feedback (CFB) Mode
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which of the following statements are true about an IDP rule base notification?
A. It can be defined as reusable logical entities that the user can apply to the rules.
B. When an action is performed, a notification defines how to log information.
C. It is used to specify the type of network traffic that has to be monitored for attacks.
D. It directs an IDP to drop or close the connection.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following components are usually found in an Intrusion detection system (IDS).?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Firewall
B. Console
C. Gateway
D. Modem
E. Sensor
Answer: B,E

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NO.26 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, interne t traces
C. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, interne t traces
D. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
Answer: C

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NO.27 WinDump, tcpdump, and Wireshark specify which fields of information libpcap should record.
Which of the following filters do they use in order to accomplish the task?
A. Berkeley Packet Filter
B. IM filter
C. Web filter
D. FIR filter
Answer: A

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NO.28 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a TCP/IP network. You have
been assigned a task to configure security mechanisms for the network of the company. You have
decided to configure a packet filtering firewall. Which of the following may be the reasons that made you
choose a packet filtering firewall as a security mechanism?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It makes security transparent to end-users which provide easy use of the client application s.
B. It prevents application-layer attacks.
C. It is easy to install packet filtering firewalls in comparison to the other network security sol utions.
D. It easily matches most of the fields in Layer 3 packets and Layer 4 segment headers, and thus,
provides a lot of flexibility in implementing security policies.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.29 Which of the following types of Intrusion Detection Systems consists of an agent on a host that identifies
intrusions by analyzing system calls, application logs, file-system modifications (binaries, password files,
capability/acl databases) and other host activities and state?
A. HIDS
B. NIDS
C. APIDS
D. PIDS
Answer: A

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NO.30 Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoofing, also known as ARP poisoning or ARP Poison Routing
(APR), is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network. ARP spoofing may allow an
attacker to sniff data frames on a local area network (LAN), modify the traffic, or stop the traffic altogether.
The principle of ARP spoofing is to send fake ARP messages to an Ethernet LAN.
What steps can be used as a countermeasure of ARP spoofing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Using ARP Guard utility
B. Using smash guard utility
C. Using static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
D. Using ARP watch utility
E. Using IDS Sensors to check continually for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Code d'Examen: GSLC
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Security Leadership Certification (GSLC))
Questions et réponses: 567 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following applications would be considered a data warehousing application?
A. Golf score tracking
B. Badge reader
C. Fraud detection
D. eCommerce site
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following are the examples of administrative controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Security policy
B. Auditing
C. Security awareness training
D. Data Backup
Answer: A, C

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NO.3 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows
Server 2008. The company's headquarters is located at Los Angeles. A branch office of the company is
located at Denver. You are about to send a message to Rick who is a Network Administrator at Denver.
You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following
keys will you use to encrypt the message?
A. Your public key
B. The recipient's private key
C. The recipient's public key
D. Your private key
Answer: C

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NO.4 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate. You configure a public key infrastructure (PKI) on
the network. You configure a root CA and a subordinate CA on the network. For security reasons, you
want to take the root CA offline. You are required to configure the CA servers to support for certificate
revocation.
Choose the steps you will take to accomplish the task.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The company's network is connected to the Internet
through a T1 line. The firewall is configured on the network for securing the internal network from the
intruders on the Internet. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003. You are designing a
public key infrastructure (PKI) for the network. The security policy of the company states that all users
should use smart cards for authentication. Select and place the type of certificate authority (CA) that is
required to be configured on the network to implement the security policy of the company.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Mark works as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows 2000 Active
Directory domain-based network. The domain contains one hundred Windows XP Professional client
computers. Mark is deploying an 802.11 wireless LAN on the network. The wireless LAN will use Wired
Equivalent Privacy (WEP) for all the connections. According to the company's security policy, the client
computers must be able to automatically connect to the wireless LAN. However, the unauthorized
computers must not be allowed to connect to the wireless LAN and view the wireless network. Mark wants
to configure all the wireless access points and client computers to act in accordance with the company's
security policy. What will he do to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Open system.
B. Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.
C. Configure the authentication type for the wireless LAN to Shared Key.
D. Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.
E. Broadcast SSID to connect to the access point (AP).
F. On each client computer, add the SSID for the wireless LAN as the preferred network.
Answer: C, D. F

NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. The domain functional level is set to Windows Server 2003. You have configured an
Active Directory-integrated DNS zone on the network. A new security policy dictates that each incoming
DNS query should be recorded. Which of the following steps will you take to implement the new security
policy?
A. Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Object Access.
Attach the GPO to the domain.
B. Do nothing, each incoming DNS queries is recorded by default in DNS.LOG file.
C. Enable debug logging on the DNS server.
D. Create a new OU.
Move the DNS server account to the OU.
Create a GPO.
Configure Audit Logon events.
Attach the GPO to the OU.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following provides security by implementing authentication and encryption on Wireless
LAN (WLAN)?
A. WEP
B. WAP
C. L2TP
D. IPSec
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are the project manager for your organization and are trying to determine which vendor your
organization will use. You have determined that any vendor that would like to bid on your project work will
need to have a Microsoft Certified System Engineer on staff, have eight years of Cisco experience, and
have at least two references from similar projects. What have you created in this scenario?
A. Screening system for the vendors
B. Weighting system for the vendors
C. Preferred vendors list
D. Bidders conference
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following are the goals of risk management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Identifying the risk
B. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure
C. Identifying the accused
D. Assessing the impact of potential threats
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.11 A wireless network uses multiple modulation schemes to make the signal strong so that it can travel far.
These modulation schemes work with a certain IEEE standard. Choose and drop the correct standards in
the right pane according to the modulation scheme.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A_______ is a computer system on the Internet that is expressly set up to attract and trap people who
attempt to penetrate other people's computer systems.
A. honeypot
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Automated penetration testing
B. Code review
C. Manual penetration testing
D. Vulnerability scanning
Answer: D

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NO.14 Drag and Drop the layers of TCP/IP model according to their level of data encapsulation.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The promiscuous mode is a configuration of a network card that makes the card pass all traffic it
receives to the central processing unit rather than just packets addressed to it. Which of the following
tools works by placing the host system network card into the promiscuous mode?
A. Sniffer
B. THC-Scan
C. NetStumbler
D. Snort
Answer: A

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NO.16 Rick, the Network Administrator of the Fimbry Hardware Inc., wants to design the initial test model for
Internet Access. He wants to fulfill the following goals:
No external traffic should be allowed into the network.
Administrators should be able to restrict the websites which can be accessed by the internal
users.
Which of the following technologies should he use to accomplish the above goals? (Click the Exhibit
button on the toolbar to see the case study.)
A. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
B. Network Address Translator (NAT)
C. Firewall
D. Proxy Server
E. Routing and Remote Access Service (RRAS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet
surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Spyware
B. Honeypot
C. Worm
D. Malware
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following protocols is used as a transport protocol for Internet dial-up connections?
A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. PPP
Answer: D

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NO.19 John works as a Programmer for We-are-secure Inc. On one of his routine visits to the company, he
noted down the passwords of the employees while they were typing them on their computer screens.
Which of the following social engineering attacks did he just perform?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Important user posing
C. Dumpster diving
D. Authorization by third party
Answer: A

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NO.20 Fill in the blank with the appropriate type of router.
A ______ router performs packet-filtering and is used as a firewall.
A. screening
Answer: A

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NO.21 You work as a Network Administrator for Net World International. The company has a Windows Server
2008 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single
domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2008. All client
computers on the network run Windows Vista Ultimate.
You are configuring a public key interface (PKI) to support domain users and computers. All users will use
smart cards for logon. You have configured a global group named SCIssuer that will issue smart cards for
all domain users. A file server named SecServer is configured on the network. The certificate-based
IPSec encryption is required for all communications to and from the SecServer server. A VPN server is
configured on the network to enable sales managers to connect to the network remotely using their
laptops which run Windows Vista Ultimate. The L2TP connection is required for the VPN server. Place the
users, computers, and groups to the certificate templates that are required for implementing the PKI
infrastructure.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following options is an approach to restricting system access to authorized users?
A. MIC
B. MAC
C. RBAC
D. DAC
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which system is designed to analyze, detect, and report on security-related events.?
A. HIPS
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. HIDS
Answer: B

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NO.24 You work as a Network Administrator for Infonet Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
domain-based network. The network has three Windows Server 2008 member servers and 150 Windows
Vista client computers. According to the company's security policy, you want to apply a firewall profile to
the network.Choose the firewall profiles supported by Windows Server 2008 and Windows Vista.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which of the following is used to describe the type of FTP access in which a user does not have
permissions to list the contents of directories, but can access the contents if he knows the path and file
name?
A. Secure FTP
B. Blind FTP
C. Passive FTP
D. Hidden FTP
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following encryption algorithms is applied in the PGP encryption system?
A. TDE
B. Triple DES
C. Blowfish
D. IDEA
Answer: D

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NO.27 Janet is the project manager of the NHQ Project for her company. Janet is nearly done leading the
project and there have been no cost or schedule overruns in the development of the new software for her
company. The project team has been completing their work on time and there is still $75,000 left in the
project budget. Janet decides to have the project team implement some extra features to the project
scope to use all of the $75,000 in the budget even though the customer didn't specifically ask for the
added features. This scenario is an example of which one of the following?
A. Scope creep
B. Gold plating
C. Change management
D. Value added change
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following viruses is designed to prevent antivirus researchers from examining its code by
using various methods that make tracing and disassembling difficult?
A. Armored virus
B. Stealth virus
C. Multipartite virus
D. Polymorphic virus
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following tools is based on Linux and used to carry out the Penetration Testing?
A. JPlag
B. BackTrack
C. Vedit
D. Ettercap
Answer: B

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NO.30 Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
A.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: GCPM
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Project Manager Certification Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 397 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. A new project has been proposed to change all keyboards
of every computer in your organization. There are 1,600 keyboards that will need to be removed and
replaced with wireless keyboards. What document will you first need to start this project?
A. Project risk statement
B. Risk register
C. Project charter
D. Contract for new keyboards
Answer: C

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NO.2 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing a task to generate a hierarchical list of
resources related by function and resource type that is used to facilitate planning and controlling of project
work. Which of the following components of project management will you use to accomplish the above
task?
A. PERT chart
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. WBS
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, a project stakeholder, is demanding that you
add some deliverables to your project scope for free. You explain to Marcy that it's too late in the project
execution to consider adding these deliverables, as most of the software your project team is creating is
nearly done. Marcy and you escalate the issue to management.
Management decides that you will add the deliverables to the project scope if Marcy pays a significant fee
and allows you additional time to complete the project. What conflict resolution method has management
offered?
A. Issue management
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Confronting
Answer: B

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NO.4 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following stages of the process group, if not
performed well by you, is unlikely that the project will be successful in meeting the business needs?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Initiation
C. Executing
D. Planning and design
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following are the characteristics of the project life cycle?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, are high as the work is carried out, and decrease as the project
comes towards the end.
B. Stakeholders influences, risk, and uncertainty are at peak in the beginning of the project.
C. Skills to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without much impact on cost, is at
peak in the beginning of the project and reduces as the project progresses towards completion.
D. It is limited by constraints, including resource constraints.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 James works as the project manager for a software project. He and his team are on the Direct and
Manage Project Execution process. All of the following are inputs of this process except for which one?
A. Project charter
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Approved environmental requests
E. Project management plan
Answer: A

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NO.7 Diane is the project manager of the HGF Project. A risk that has been identified and analyzed in the
project planning processes is now coming into fruition. What individual should respond to the risk with the
preplanned risk response?
A. Diane
B. Risk owner
C. Subject matter expert
D. Project sponsor
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are using the PDCA model to determine, implement, monitor, control, and maintain Information
Security Management System or ISMS. You have to evaluate the new processes and match up to the
results against the probable results to determine the differences. In which of the following phases of the
PDCA are you working?
A. Do
B. Act
C. Plan
D. Check
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are in a project to create a Website. Your project team has met a few times and you're working
with them to develop the project's WBS. Jan, a marketing expert, is in disagreement with Larry over how
the Website should function. Gary and Gina are in disagreement over who'll take the lead on the design of
the software for the Website. Mark, Mary, and Martha are all bickering about the photo management
approach for the Website's pictures. What stage of team development is your project team currently in?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Norming
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following techniques is described in the statement below?
"It evaluates the abstract early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates for all activities devoid
of any resource limitations by performing a forward and backward pass analysis through the schedule
network."
A. Resource utilization
B. Critical path method
C. Critical Chain method
D. Resource leveling heuristic
Answer: B

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NO.11 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following techniques will you use to
determine whether particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased
from the outside sources?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Make-or-Buy Analysis
C. Contract Types
D. Procurement Negotiations
Answer: B

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NO.12 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the
following documents are reviewed during the project kickoff meeting?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Project budget
B. Project WBS
C. Project charter
D. Project scope
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Charlie has just completed the project according to the terms of the contract. She and the customer
are completing a walk through of the project deliverables, and the customer is asking for changes to the
deliverables before she'll accept the product. What project management process should manage the
documented change request that may come from scope verification?
A. Scope management
B. Perform integrated change control
C. Control Scope
D. Control change control
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is described in the statement below?
"It is a tool that defines a project and groups the project's discrete work elements in a way that helps
organize and define the total work scope of the project."
A. WBS
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. Critical path
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on a project that has a budget of
$805,000 and you have completed 45 percent of the project work. Due to some errors, however, you have
actually spent $430,000 of the budget. Management wants to know the project's cost performance index.
Which of the following values will you report?
A. 0.87
B. 0.80
C. 0.84
D. 0.86
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are a new Project Manager that has been entrusted with a software development project that is in
progress. A sub-contracting company has been awarded a cost reimbursable contract to do the
development work on this project, and the project has been completed. While trying to close this
procurement, you discover that still there are some unresolved claims. However, the sub contract
company does not accept that these claims are unresolved. Which of the following is the best method for
reaching the final equitable settlement?
A. Litigation
B. Mediation
C. Direct negotiation
D. Alternative dispute resolution
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project charter
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project scope statement
D. Develop project team
Answer: A

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NO.18 You are the program manager for your project. You are working with the project managers regarding
the procurement processes for their projects. You have ruled out one particular contract type because it is
considered too risky for the program. Which one of the following contract types is usually considered to be
the most dangerous for the buyer?
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. Time and materials
C. Cost plus percentage of costs
D. Fixed fee
Answer: C

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You report the project details directly to the vice president
and the administrator of your organization. In which of the following types of organization structures are
you working?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Jury
D. Projectized
Answer: B

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NO.20 You are the project manager of the NHT Project. This project has 12,345 office doors to install
throughout a campus. Each of the doors costs the project $456 and requires special hardware to
electronically lock and open the doors. You've gathered the project team before they begin the installation
for a hands-on training. As a group you and the project team install 50 doors following a checklist of
instructions so that every door will be installed exactly the same throughout the campus and with minimal
waste. This is an example of what project execution technique?
A. Preventive action
B. Implemented corrective action
C. Quality control
D. Defect repair validation
Answer: A

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NO.21 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on several projects. Your projects vary in
size and budget. You have to calculate the ratios of schedule and cost compared to plan, so that you can
compare relative schedule and cost performance of each project. Which of the following components of
EVM provide measures of schedule and cost performance that are not affected by the size of the project?
A. BAC and EAC
B. CPI and SPI
C. CV and SV
D. PV and EV
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following processes describes the statement below?
"It consists of the processes required to ensure that the project contains all the work required to complete
the project effectively."
A. Project communications management
B. Project scope management
C. Risk management
D. Project human resource management
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following is described in the statement below.?
"It is a group of sequential and related project phases that are defined by the organization and control
needs of the management or organizations concerned with the project, the nature of the project itself, and
the application area."
A. Verify scope
B. Project charter
C. Activity list
D. Project life cycle
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following components of EVA is described in the statement below?
"It is a measure of how much of the project value has been earned so far through completed work, that is,
the budgeted cost of the work that has been performed through the project status date."
A. PV
B. AC
C. SV
D. EV
Answer: D

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NO.25 You are a Project Manager in your organization who is managing a considerably huge budget project
to develop new software. Considering the varied nature of your stakeholder group, you would like to put
together a plan as to what information the stakeholders need, and how to provide that information. What
is the document that you would need, and as part of which process group would you achieve this?
A. Communications Management Plan, Execution Process group
B. Project Management Plan, Planning Process Group
C. Communications Management Plan, Planning Process Group
D. Project Management Plan, Initiating Process Group
Answer: C

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NO.26 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following processes will you use to formalize
the acceptance of the completed project deliverables?
A. Verify scope
B. Report performance
C. Expert judgment
D. Perform quality control
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following are the characteristics of a project?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Its success is measured by evaluating whether it meets or exceeds expectations of the stakeholders.
B. It is temporary in nature and has a definite beginning and ending date.
C. It is completed when the project goals are achieved.
D. It is common in nature.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.28 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project scope statement
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project charter
D. Develop project team
Answer: C

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NO.29 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing steps to carry out and finish the
project according to the measures drawn through the planning stage. Which of the following stages of the
project are you working on?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Closing
C. Initiation
D. Execution
Answer: D

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NO.30 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You have to subdivide project
deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following
processes will you use to perform the above task?
A. Create WBS
B. Verify scope
C. Control scope
D. Define activities
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-079
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe@ RoboHelp@ 7 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 134 Q&As

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NO.1 Which file type may be imported if FrameMaker is NOT installed on the same computer as RoboHelp?
A. FRM
B. MIF
C. BK
D. BOOK
E. FM
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are generating a PDF document from the Printed Documentation General dialog box. It is important
that readers can access and jump to cross references in the output file. Which should you select from the
Adobe PDF Settings dialog box?
A. attach source file to Adobe PDF
B. add bookmarks to Adobe PDF
C. add links to Adobe PDF
D. enable accessibility and reflow with Tagged PDF.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are using the Printed Documentation Single Source Layout to create an MS Word document. You
want to insure that Glossary hotspot expanding text is shown in the resulting document. What should you
do?
A. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include glossary text from
Advanced Options dialog box and click OK
B. select the project's Glossary from the dropdown list of the Printed Documentation Dialog box
C. choose Tools > Glossary Hotspot Wizard > select Automatically add definitions for all topics and click
Finish
D. click the Advanced button of the Printed Documentation Dialog box > Select Include expanding text
from Advanced Options dialog box and click OK
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have some content that you want to exclude when you generate MS HTML Help output. What
should you do?
A. Create and apply a user defined variable.
B. Create and apply a snippet.
C. Create and apply a conditional build tag.
D. Create and apply a bookmark link.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which command should you choose to show user defined variables as green text in the Design Editor?
A. View > Show > Positioning
B. View > Show > Tag List
C. View > Show > Fields
D. View > Show > Conditional Areas
E. View > Show > Glyphs
Answer: C

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NO.6 How should you apply a Conditional Build Tag to a project topic?
A. Drag the Conditional Build Tag from the Conditional Build Tag pod to the topic on the Topic List pod.
B. Drag the Conditional Build Tag from the Conditional Build Tag pod to the Design window of an open
topic.
C. Drag a topic on the Topic List pod to a Conditional Build Tag on the Conditional Build Tag pod.
D. Apply the Conditional Build Tag to a CSS and then apply the CSS to a project topic.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which paragraph style is typically used to efficiently split a Word document into new topics when
importing into RoboHelp?
A. Title
B. Heading item 1
C. Inline Styles
D. Body Text
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are preparing to import a long MS Word document that needs to be broken up into separate HTML
topics. What should you do to prepare the Word document to split it into separate topics?
A. create and apply Heading item 1 consistently to all headings in the Word document
B. delete any inline styles that may be applied in the original Word document
C. eliminate any broken cross reference links
D. assure heading styles are applied consistently and modify if they are not
Answer: D

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NO.9 You have created two conditional build tags (Print and Online) and assigned them to content and
topics. When you generate WebHelp, you create a conditional build tag expression and select the Print
tag. Which will occur?
A. the output will include all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.
B. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Online tag assigned.
C. the output will exclude all topics and content that has the Print tag assigned.
D. the output will exclude all topics and content that has no tags assigned.
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have been asked to change the name of the Start page that is created when you generate your
Help. What should you do?
A. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and select the Start page from the Default topic area
of the Option dialog box.
B. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and type the name of the new Start page into the
Output Folder and Start Page area of the Option dialog box.
C. After generating the project, minimize or close RoboHelp. Then, using Windows Explorer, open the
output folder, find the existing Start page and rename it (you can right-click the file and choose Rename).
D. Show the Properties of the Single Source Layout and edit the name of the Start page on the Skin
Editor.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which is the file name extension of a Snippet.?
A. XPJ
B. HTS
C. CHM
D. CSS
Answer: B

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NO.12 Your project deliverable is a file with the extension CHM. Which Single Source Layout would you
choose?
A. WebHelp
B. WebHelp Pro
C. FlashHelp
D. MS HTML Help
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which item may be included in a snippet?
A. bookmarks
B. tables
C. header
D. footer
Answer: B

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NO.14 You have text in a TOC item that sometimes changes. What should you do to manage this most
efficiently in the TOC editor?
A. right-click the TOC item, choose rename
B. assign a User Defined Variable to the TOC item
C. create a Snippet for the TOC item
D. create a custom TOC with a different title for the TOC item
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are importing a PDF document into RoboHelp. Which three statements about the Import PDF
Wizard are true? (Choose three)
A. create new topics based on style
B. create topics based on table of contents
C. create a new topic for each PDF page
D. convert as Cascading Style Sheet (CSS)
E. create topics using encrypted PDF
F. convert as image
Answer: A,C,F

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NO.16 You want to have the option to include or exclude content from your output. What should you do before
you generate the project?
A. select content and apply a snippet from the right click menu.
B. select content and apply conditional build tag from the right click menu.
C. select content and apply a user defined variable from the right click menu.
D. select content and apply an index keyword from the right click menu.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You want to create a table of contents when importing a MS Word document into your RoboHelp
project. What should you do?
A. In the Word document, assign custom TOC styles to the headings you want to import
B. Import the document and in RoboHelp's TOC editor, click the Auto Create TOC icon
C. In the Word document, create an automatic table of contents based on heading styles prior to importing
D. After importing the Word document, create subfolders containing topics in RoboHelp that match the
books and pages in the TOC
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which is NOT a valid Alignment option in the Breadcrumb Options dialog box?
A. Left.
B. Center.
C. Right.
D. Justified.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which is the file name extension for an Index project file?
A. XPJ
B. HHK
C. HHC
D. CHM
Answer: B

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NO.20 To which item can a user defined variables be assigned?
A. glossary term
B. cascading style sheet
C. image map
D. table of contents book
Answer: D

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