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Code d'Examen: HP0-P11
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Entry-Level Server Techonlogies)
Questions et réponses: 205 Q&As

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NO.1 A Management Processor must be installed in an Integrity rx1620 server before you can load which
operating system?
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Windows
D. OpenVMS
Answer: C

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NO.2 Your customer is looking for a Integrity server with a minimum of two PCI-X slots supporting a transfer
rate of 2.1GB/s. Which system would you recommend?
A. rx1620
B. rx3600
C. rx2620
D. rx4640
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which benefits do HP Care Pack Services provide beyond the HP Standard Warranties? (Select two.)
A. software support
B. committed response and repair time
C. support for default configuration only
D. support for customer proprietary applications
E. hardware protection against manufacturer defect
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What is the maximum internal storage capacity supported by an Integrity rx2620 server equipped with
300GB drives?
A. 300GB
B. 600GB
C. 900GB
D. 1.2TB
Answer: C

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NO.5 Where can you find HP Support Matrices for HP I/O adapters that show which systems support the
adapter and which firmware and drivers are required?
A. docs.hp.com
B. HP Product Bulletins page
C. HP Storage Works sizing tool
D. HP Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your customer just bought a new Integrity rx6600 server equipped with PCI-X 2.0 slots. The customer
wants to know if this server can use their existing PCI-X 1.0 adapter. How will you answer this question?
A. Yes, but an extended driver is required.
B. Yes, but only if a special repeater is used
C. No, PCI-X and PCI-X 2.0 are not compatible
D. Yes, PCI-X 2.0 is backward-compatible with PCI-X 1.0
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is maximum amount of memory supported by an Integrity rx1620 equipped with a zx1 chipset
and 2GB DIMMs?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.8 Your customer's data center has HP Integrity servers running several virtual machines. Which software
should you use as a central point of management for these virtual machines?
A. HP Systems Insight Manager
B. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
C. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
D. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the Premium Hardware/Software Support services covers HP products and selected
multi-vendor hardware and software 24x7?
A. Proactive 24
B. Support Plus
C. Critical Service
D. Support Plus 24
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which benefit does the HP CarePack Service provide to your customer?
A. prevents downtime
B. committed response time
C. HP warranty service consultation
D. protection against manufacturer defects
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer wants to install several rx2660 and he is worried about the cooling in his server room.
What value located on the HP Quickspecs page refers to heat?
A. Watt
B. BTUs/hour
C. Volt
D. Amp
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which type of internal storage controller is used in an Integrity rx3600 system?
A. dual channel Ultra320
B. dual channel Serial ATA (SATA)
C. six channel Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
D. dual channel Serial Attached SCSI (SAS)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which chipset is used in an Integrity rx3600 server?
A. zx2
B. zx1
C. sx2000
D. sx1000
Answer: A

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NO.14 You need to install virtual machines on an Integrity rx1620 server with a single processor installed.
What is the maximum number of virtual machines that you can install on this server?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
Answer: C

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NO.15 A new firmware version is available for the rx6600 server. How do you display the current version of
your system to determine if an update is required?
A. Execute the info bcfg command from the EFI shell.
B. Execute the id command from the MP command menu.
C. Review the System Configuration menu from the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Review the System Overview from the EFI Boot Manager menu.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Identify two features of the zx1 chipset. (Select two.)
A. It uses the zx1 IOA chip to support PCI Express.
B. It uses the zx1 IOA chip to support PCI and PCI-X.
C. It decreases the memory latency with the zx1 SME chip.
D. It increases the memory capacity with the zx1 SME chip.
E. It provides two frontside buses to connect Itanium CPUs.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Which HP service provides small and medium businesses with tape backup solutions ?
A. Recover-All Service
B. Electronic Vaulting Service
C. Ultimate Business Protection
D. Data Protector Express Service
Answer: C

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NO.18 How are the resources of an Integrity system running HP-UX assigned within Process Resource
Manager? (Select two.)
A. based on the file /opt/wlm/bin/wlmpard
B. based on individual users or user groups
C. based on the number of CPUs available
D. based on the CPU priority
E. based on the application
Answer: BE

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NO.19 Which of the HP Deployment Services provides consulting, design, implementation, and thermal
analysis?
A. Migration Services
B. Installation Services
C. Relocation Services
D. Data Center Services
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the supported Virtual Server Environment (VSE) solution for Integrity rx2620 servers?
A. hard partitions
B. virtual partitions
C. resource partitions
D. Integrity Virtual Machine (VM)
Answer: D

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NO.21 HP Systems Insight Manager can run on which platforms?
A. Linux, HP-UX, OpenVMS, Windows
B. HP-UX, Linux, OpenVMS
C. HP-UX, Linux, Windows
D. Windows, OpenVMS, Linux
Answer: C

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NO.22 Which statement best describes HP Onsite Agent's Reference Set (OARS)?
A. It is an online tool used to retrieve information regarding HP management agents.
B. It is a CD-ROM based tool used to retrieve information regarding HP management agents.
C. It is a CD-ROM based tool used to retrieve current service and support information on HP hardware
products.
D. It is an online tool used to retrieve information regarding current service and support information on HP
hardware products.
Answer: C

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NO.23 Which resources would you use to determine if a specific host bus adapter is compatible with an
Integrity rx3600 server running OpenVMS? (Select two.)
A. HP Active Answers
B. HP Server Website
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Ordering and Configuration Guide
Answer: CD

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NO.24 Which statements explain the difference between the Itanium 2 9M and the mx2 processors? (Select
two.)
A. Itanium mx2 offers more Level 3 cache.
B. Itanium 2 9M offers more Level 3 cache.
C. Itanium mx2 is the upgrade path from Itanium 2 9M.
D. Itanium mx2 supports two processors on one socket.
E. Itanium 2 9M supports two processors on one socket.
Answer: BD

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NO.25 Identify two features of integrated Lights-Out ( iLO) Advanced Pack. (Select two.)
A. remote firmware update
B. SSH encryption support for secure access to iLO
C. graphical console for remote access from any location
D. command line and scripting interface for configuration and maintenance
E. iLO group actions for managing multiple system with HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM)
Answer: BE

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NO.26 Which high availability features are available on an Integrity rx2620 server? (Select two.)
A. Hot Plug PCI-Express slots
B. N+2 hot swap cooling
C. support for RAID memory
D. dynamic processor resilience
E. online memory page deallocation
Answer: DE

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NO.27 What is the maximum internal storage capacity supported by an Integrity rx4640 equipped with 300GB
drives?
A. 300GB
B. 600GB
C. 900GB
D. 1.2TB
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which HP Integrity Essentials product provides unified virtualization and management of physical and
virtual servers?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Virtualization Manager (VMMgr)
C. global Workload Manager (gWLM)
D. Virtual Machine Management Pack (VMM)
Answer: B

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NO.29 What are the characteristics of HP standard warranty protection? (Select two.)
A. parts and labor
B. software support
C. installation support
D. committed repair times
E. protection against manufacturer defect
Answer: AE

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NO.30 Click the Exhibit button.
Which number represents zx2 MIO?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S12
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 133 Q&As

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NO.1 Which script is sent securely by CPQLOCFG to iLO over the network?
A. RIBCL
B. RIBdos.vbs
C. HPONCFG
D. CPQLODOS
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which type of memory protection calculates a 72-bit syndrome for every 64 bits of data?
A. Automatic Parity Checking (APC)
B. Error Checking and Correcting (ECC)
C. Error Detecting and Correction (EDC)
D. Battery Backed Write Cache (BBWC)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which resource gathers information for sizing, recommends tools, and helps to deploy a business
solution?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. Product Bulletin
C. Enterprise Configurator
D. Sales Builder for Windows
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which default port number is used with the following link to open HP Systems Insight Manager?
https://<Server_IP_address>:
A. 23
B. 2301
C. 2381
D. 50000
Answer: D

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NO.5 You need to estimate the run time for a UPS solution for some HP ProLiant servers. Which tool
accomplishes this task?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Power Distribution Utility
C. Rack and Power Manager
D. UPS Enterprise Configurator
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which features are added to Lights-Out 100i Advanced Pack compared to Lights-Out 100? (Select
three.)
A. control system power
B. embedded KVM over IP
C. boot to remote diskette drive
D. available as option expansion card
E. full remote graphical console capabilities
F. embedded Baseboard Management Controller (BMC)
Answer: BEF

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NO.7 Which statement is correct regarding Transmit Load Balancing (TLB)?
A. TLB teaming has a maximum of four NICs in a team.
B. TLB requires an 802.3ad-capable switch to support TLB teaming.
C. NICs in TLB do not have Network Fault Tolerance (NFT) capability.
D. TLB can receive at 1000Mb/s (theoretical throughput) using four teamed Gigabit Ethernet NICs.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which ports must be open when using the HP SIM defaults through a firewall? (Select three.)
A. 22 (SSH)
B. 23 (Telnet)
C. 8160 (Patrol)
D. 137 (NETBIOS)
E. 161 (SNMP Agent)
F. 5989 (HTTPS WMI Mapper)
Answer: AEF

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NO.9 What is a feature of SATA?
A. PIN efficiency is lower than ATA hard drives.
B. SATA host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
C. SATA drives are daisy-chained during configuration.
D. It uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as Serial Attached SCSI.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are the preferred methods for multiserver deployment? (Select two.)
A. SmartStart
B. iLO Scripting
C. Rapid Deployment Pack
D. Insight Control Linux Edition
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which advanced memory protection technology avoids unplanned downtime due to a complete
memory chip failure?
A. Online Spare
B. Standard ECC
C. Advanced ECC
D. Mirrored Memory
Answer: D

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NO.12 A customer requires a Linux file server to be accessed by Windows and UNIX workstations. Which
services should be installed to support this requirement? (Select two.)
A. MD
B. NFS
C. NSS
D. SMB
E. CUPS
F. AutoFS
Answer: BD

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NO.13 From which HP resource can you access a set of tools, e-Services and solution sizers to help plan and
implement a suitable server solution for a customer?
A. HP Support Center
B. ActiveAnswers website
C. Solutions Programs Portal website
D. Channel Services Network website
E. Support and Troubleshooting website
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are required to provide a UPS solution for a ProLiant DL380 G5 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000.
All units are supplied with fully redundant power supplies (PSUs). The customer's goal is to provide
proper shutdown in the event of an extended power outage. Which guidelines are important as part of
your recommended minimum solution? (Select two.)
A. The UPS should have a minimum of 2 load segments.
B. The UPS should have a minimum of 3 load segments.
C. The UPS should have a minimum of 6 load segments.
D. Provide one UPS of VA rating based on the sizing requirements of the UPS Sizing Tool.
E. Provide one UPS of VA rating equal to at least 1.40 x the total maximum combined power requirements
(watts) of all units.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 Which products are ProLiant Essentials Value Pack options for configuration management? (Select
three.)
A. Automation Pack
B. Rapid Deployment Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. Integrated Lights-Out Advanced Pack
E. Remote Direct Memory Access Pack
Answer: BCD

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NO.16 A customer wants to connect an MSA30 DB storage solution to a ProLiant DL380 G5 server. Which
Smart Array controller is required to connect both MSA connectors?
A. Smart Array 6i
B. Smart Array 641
C. Smart Array 642
D. Smart Array 6402
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which management protocols can HP SIM use to automatically discover and identify HP servers,
desktops, clusters, workstations, and portables? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. SMTP
E. SNMP
Answer: ABE

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NO.18 Which tasks can be performed on a group of iLO processors by an administrator using the HP
Lights-Out Configuration Utility? (Select two.)
A. Configure network settings.
B. Team the iLO ports for high availability.
C. Activate the ProLiant Essentials iLO Advanced Pack license keys.
D. Integrate iLO ports in one HP Instant Support Enterprise Edition (ISEE) group.
Answer: AC

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NO.19 You are asked to investigate a failing hard drive on a ProLiant DL380 G5. When you arrive at the rack,
you notice all the hard drive LEDs are flashing and the server UID light is flashing blue. What is
happening?
A. The array is rebuilding a redundant array using an RDP scripted task. The UID is blinking because
RDP is in control.
B. A disk has failed in a nonredundant array and all logical drives are lost. You must erase all logical drives
and rebuild the server.
C. Someone is accessing the unit using the iLO 2 remote console and is probably using the Array
Configuration Utility to check on the RAID configuration.
D. Someone has requested remote assistance from the HP SIM console and is using the storage agents
to run an identification SNMP task on all the disks in the array.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which server recovery functions are included with Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)? (Select three.)
A. automatic memory repair
B. recovery from a fan failure
C. automatic hard drive repair
D. recovery from a processor failure
E. recovery from a power supply failure
F. automatic restarting after an operating system failure
Answer: ADF

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Code d'Examen: HP0-918
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.3 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.4 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.5 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.6 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.7 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.8 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.9 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.10 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.11 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.12 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.13 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.14 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.15 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.16 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.17 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.18 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.19 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

certification HP   HP0-918   HP0-918

NO.20 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.2 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.3 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.4 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.5 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.6 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.7 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.8 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.9 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.10 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.11 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.12 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.13 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.14 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.15 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.16 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.17 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.18 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.19 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

certification HP   HP0-J15   HP0-J15 examen

NO.20 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y18
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

certification HP   HP0-Y18 examen   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.2 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

HP   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.3 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

HP   HP0-Y18 examen   HP0-Y18 examen   HP0-Y18

NO.4 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18

NO.5 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

HP   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18

NO.6 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.7 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

certification HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.9 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen   certification HP0-Y18

NO.10 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

certification HP   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18
19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

HP examen   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18
20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

HP   certification HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18

NO.11 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

HP   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18

NO.12 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

HP   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen

NO.13 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen   certification HP0-Y18

NO.14 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

HP   HP0-Y18 examen   certification HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18

NO.15 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen

NO.16 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

HP   HP0-Y18   HP0-Y18 examen   HP0-Y18   certification HP0-Y18

NO.17 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-754
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Operations I (7.x) UNIX )
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 How can an operator email messages from the message browser to the OpenView
Operations administrator?
A. Drag and drop directly from the browser to an email application.
B. Highlight the opc_adm icon and use Edit->Copy and Edit->Paste in the message
browser.
C. Run the opc_msgdump command, cut out the relevant messages from the file and
paste into an email application.
D. Save the messages into a file and mail the file or attach it to an outgoing mail
message.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The OpenView Operations Agent collects performance metrics with the help of the
coda process. This coda process is_______.
A. the last release of the OV Performance Agent integrated into the OVO agent
B. a replacement for the OV Performance Agent that must be purchased separately
C. an add-on module that has to be installed on the top of the OVO agent
D. a component included as part of the OVO agent
Answer: D

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NO.3 The hostname for a managed node has changed. Will OVO automatically detect
this?
A. Yes, OVO internally maps the new hostname to the old hostname as stored in the
OVO database. This is because the IP address is used as a unique identifier.
B. No, if the hostname or the IP address of a managed node has been modified, this
change also needs to be made in OVO.
C. Yes, but only new messages from these hosts will be intercepted. You must change the
hostname in the Modify Node window before you distribute templates or install a new
OVO agent version on that managed node.
D. No, OVO will only detect the change after both the Management Server processes and
Managed Node processes have been stopped and restarted.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which three of the following are management aspects which are covered by
OpenView Operations? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Print Management
B. Operations Management
C. Backup Management
D. Integrated Network & System Management
E. Management by Exception
Answer: B, D, E

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NO.5 From the Java GUI, it is NOT possible to print_________
A. message browser contents.
B. message properties.
C. application definitions.
D. application output.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which three of the following can be monitored by OpenView Operations agents?
Choose 3 that apply.
A. application logfiles
B. Databases processes
C. DMI events
D. MPE/iX Console Messages
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.7 What is the meaning of Column U in the Message Browser?
A. unknown severity
B. unknown event type
C. unmatched condition
Answer: C

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NO.8 The Message Browser entries can be sorted within the Java GUI by_
A. the OVO Administrator configuring the appropriate criteria when creating/modifying
the user within the Motif GUI.
B. specifying the sorting criteria in the view browser dialog.
C. specifying the sorting criteria in the Edit -> Preferences window.
D. clicking on the appropriate column heading to change sorting sequence from
ascending to descending or vice versa.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which two tools can be used to test OVO pattern matching? Choose 2 that apply.
A. opcsrvtst
B. opcmomchk
C. Use the test option in the template screen of the OVO GUI.
D. opcconfig
E. opcpat
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 Can an operator modify the criticality of a message in the ITO browser?
A. Yes, but they must first own the message.
B. Yes, but only using the JAVA GUI.
C. Yes, but only if nobody else owns the message.
D. Yes, they can perform the change regardless of the type of GUI and whether the
message is owned or not.
Answer: C

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NO.11 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics on the managed node.
The amount of free disk space recommended for the database used to store these
metrics is ______Mb.
A. 10
B. 25
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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NO.12 The embedded performance component collects basic metrics and stores them. The
values of these metrics are stored______ .
A. in the Oracle database
B. on the management server in a proprietary data store
C. in an xml file on the managed node
D. in a proprietary database on the managed node
Answer: D

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NO.13 All message attributes can be used as filter criteria for checking incoming messages.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. An incoming message must have the same values for all attributes that are specified in
a condition to create a match. Regarding message attributes the specified attributes are
checked as AND conditions.
B. If an attribute is NOT specified, the filter ignores this attribute in the incoming
messages and compares only the other attributes.
C. If more than one value is specified for an attribute, only one of the values must match.
The specified values within one attribute are checked as OR conditions.
D. When defining conditions for a log file encapsulator template, the user needs to
specify only the message text pattern and the message group,
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where can the OVO configuration data be stored?
A. ISAM files
B. Oracle RDBMS
C. Ingres RDBMS
D. Sybase RDBMS
Answer: B

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NO.15 Within the Java GUI, how do you open a Filter Browser to only show OVO
messages from a specific node?
A. Select the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side, press the right mouse
button and select "Filter Active Message".
B. Highlight the node and then select from the menu bar View->Some. In this case, it will
automatically open the appropriate Filter Browser.
C. Select from the menu bar Show->Filtering->Modify Filter and select the appropriate
node name presented in the list box.
D. Double-click the node in the explorer-like tree on the left hand side and then select
"Show Active Messages" from the pop-up window.
Answer: A

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NO.16 How can a user change a message condition?
A. An operator selects Window->Message Source Templates and selects a template in a
group, double clicks on the template and then modifies the conditions.
B. An operator selects the affected node(s) in the Managed Nodes submap, then uses the
mouse pop-up menu to get to the option Modify Conditions.
C. The administrator or a template administrator opens the window Message Source
Templates, selects a template in a group, double clicks on the template and then modifies
the conditions.
D. The various users send messages to the OpenView Operations Administrator via the
Actions ->Inform Administrator menu. The administrator changes the templates based on
the requests.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When the OVO agent is started, the embedded performance component starts
collecting metrics automatically on the managed node. What is the best way to
disable AND de-register the embedded performance component?
A. kill coda
B. opcagt -stop coda
C. opcsubagt -disable
D. opcagt -stop -id 12
Answer: C

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NO.18 What are three ways you can open a message browser to show only messages from a
certain node? Choose 3 that apply.
A. Select the node in any ovw submap (e.g. Managed Nodes window, Node Bank, Node
Group Bank) and then select Actions->View Browser.
B. Select the node in any ovw submap and then from the menu bar select
View->Message of Selected Symbols in the Message Browser menu bar.
C. Open the Browser view setting dialog from the Message Browser menu bar by
View->Some...and enter the node name in the corresponding selection field.
D. Double-click the node in any ovw submap and then double-click the browser icon.
E. Select the node in any ovw submap and then open the Browser View setting dialog
from the Message browser menu bar by View->Some...and load the node name by
pressing "Get selected symbol".
Answer: B, C, E

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NO.19 Which of the following statements regarding history download is TRUE? Choose
one answer.
A. New filtering criteria for the history download are NOT available for selection from
the GUI.
B. You can specify the option -copy to keep the history messages in the database when
using opchistdwn.
C. You can selectively upload data from files using opchistupld+filter criteria.
D. It is NOT possible to specify exclusions (e.g. -not_node).
Answer: A

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NO.20 To correctly configure the proxy setting before calling URLs in the embedded web
browser of the Java GUI __________.
A. use the Embedded Web Browser Setting dialog box
B. do nothing. The correct flag is set by default for all platforms
C. change the flag in the file /opt/OV/www/htdocs/ito_op/embedded_web
D. do nothing if the NCSA-Apache web server is used. It is automatically installed and
configured with the OVO installation
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J27
Nom d'Examen: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture )
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Which FCIP device supports HP B-series, but not C-series Fibre Channel switches for SAN extension?
A.SAN Valley SL1000 IP-SAN Gateway
B.HP StorageWorks MPX100
C.HP StorageWorks SR2122-2 IP Storage Router
D.HP StorageWorks Multiprotocol Router
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which naming schemes are used by iSCSI nodes? (Select two.)
A.iSCSI qualified name
B.enterprise unique identifier
C.SLP service number
D.fully qualified domain name
E.world wide network identifier
Answer:A B

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NO.3 Your customer wants to migrate from a monolithic to a modular SAN design. Which benefits does the
new design provide the customer? (Select two.)
A.minimum complexity
B.lowest number of SAN switch ports
C.mainframe connectivity
D.consistent throughput and performance
E.very high scalability
Answer:D E

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NO.4 During an infrastructure assessment, which SAN management category ensures that data is available
and accessible?
A.SAN fabric management
B.SAN usage and monitoring
C.SAN storage management
D.SAN data management
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which critical areas must the SAN architect be able to discuss during SAN design? (Select three.)
A.data protection
B.data availability
C.data replication
D.SAN scalability
E.high availability
F.SAN availability
Answer:A B D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y22
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProCurve MultiService)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 If a DHCP server does not exist on a network, the Ethernet port on an autonomous mode
MSM Access Point would be assigned a default IP address of 192.168.1.1. Given this information,
which statement is correct?
A. An internal DHCP server in the MSM Access Point can be configured to assign any appropriate IP
Address to the port.
B. An internal dip switch can be configured to change the default IP address of the Ethernet port.
C. An autonomous mode MSM Access Point can be ordered with the option of a different Default IP
Address that could be assigned to its Ethernet port.
D. Without an external DHCP server, the port will always remain at 192.168.1.1.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How many Virtual Service Communities (VSCs) does the M110 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 ProCurve's RF Planner is made specifically for which operating system?
A. Linux
B. MAC OS
C. Microsoft Windows
D. Sun Microsystems Solaris
Answer: C

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NO.4 The MSM730 has 4 Ethernet ports; one for the LAN and another for the Internet. What is the
function of the other two Ethernet ports?
A. CLI access
B. client connectivity
C. reserved for future expansion
D. uplinks
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the key features of ProCurve Guest Management Software (formerly VMT)? (Select
two.)
A. the ability to create user logo designs
B. the ability to perform batch creation of user accounts
C. the ability to print X.509 certificates
D. the ability to manage a visitor's account on MSM controllers
E. the ability to import special programs for customer use
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 You have been asked by your customer to create a wireless network in a public area with
centralized user authentication. Given the following choices, which authentication method would
you choose to implement?
A. 802.1X authentication
B. MAC authentication
C. Web authentication
D. WEP authentication
Answer: C

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NO.7 How does a client associated to an MSM Access Point receive its DHCP IP Address?
A. from either the AP's internal DHCP server or an external DHCP server
B. it cannot receive a DHCP IP Address and a static IP Address is required
C. through an external DHCP server
D. with the AP's internal DHCP server
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which 802.11n frequency ranges are supported on the MSM422? (Select two.)
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 72 MHz
E. 105.7 MHz
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 What are the characteristics of the MSM422?
A. a/b/g/n, single radio
B. a/b/g/n, triple radio, integrated AP/Controller
C. a/b/g/n, dual radio, mixed radios
D. a/b/g, dual radio, mixed radios
Answer: C

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NO.10 On the MSM710, PoE can power the device from which port?
A. port 1
B. Internet port
C. LAN port
D. only as a backup to the direct DC power adapter
Answer: C

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